Did Jesus have one will or two?

[tonychanyt]

In the 7th century, Christians died on this hill, facing the question of Monothelitism versus Dyophysitism.

Let's begin by examining the word 'will'. Jn 1:

12 But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, 13 who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.

Strong's Greek: 2307. θέλημα (theléma) — 63 Occurrences

BDAG:
① what one wishes to happen, objective sense, what is willed
② the act of willing or desiring, subjective sense, will

G2307 had two senses: subjective and objective.

Consider the scenario: I feel thirsty. I will drink some apple juice.

My feeling triggers me to make a decision in my head, and then I act on that decision. Note the three steps: input (feeling), processing (choosing), output (drinking).

Subjectively, the act of willing is performed by a person's volitional organ/faculty. Inside my head, I choose to drink. After I have chosen, the output of my volition can be observed objectively. My friend can see that I have drunk some apple juice.

It is crucial to distinguish these two senses of G2307-will when we consider the question: Did Jesus have one will or two?

In the 7th century, the prevailing political winds in the Byzantine Empire largely favored Monothelitism as a compromise to unify the empire and resolve theological disputes. This was a period of significant religious and political tension, and the Byzantine emperors sought to impose Monothelitism to forcibly unite the opposing theological factions. The word 'Monothelite' was derived from the Greek for one G2307-will.

Maximus the Confessor (580–662) was a Christian monk, theologian, and scholar. Wiki:

Christologically, Maximus insisted on a strict dyophysitism

two wills

which can be seen as a corollary of the emphasis on theosis. In terms of salvation, humanity is intended to be fully united with God. This is possible for Maximus because God was first fully united with humanity in the incarnation.[26] If Christ did not become fully human (if, for example, he only had a divine and not a human will), then salvation was no longer possible, as humanity could not become fully divine.[29]

His mistaken logic led to his torture and death.

Did Jesus possess one will or two?

Jesus didn't have to have two wills to be both man and God. This is my answer: Jesus, like all other human beings, had exactly one volitional organ/module.

What distinguishes his volition from that of others?

The significant difference lay in the influence on his will, specifically, how he made choices, not in having two volitional processing modules (two wills). We decide based on our selfish desires. But not Jesus, Luke 22:

42 “Father, if you are willing, take this cup from me; yet not my will, but yours be done.”

The observable objective outputs of Jesus' singular volition were always aligned with the exact divine will of the Father. Jesus used his human volition (will) to choose what God willed. Thus, even though Jesus' human volition was distinct from the divine volition, the outcomes were identical.

What is the application for us today?

We who have been born of the Spirit have the Paraclete dwelling in our human spirit. Our human volition is in close proximity to the Paraclete. Through my conscience, my volition is linked to my indwelling Spirit. (See diagram.) I too can say, "Father, not my will, but yours be done". Let the will of the Father influence our human volition. Pay attention to our indwelling Spirit. Walk in the Spirit.

 

[concretecamper]

Constantinople III

And we proclaim equally two natural volitions or wills in him and two natural principles of action which undergo no division, no change, no partition, no confusion, in accordance with the teaching of the holy fathers. And the two natural wills not in opposition, as the impious heretics said, far from it, but his human will following, and not resisting or struggling, rather in fact subject to his divine and all powerful will.

 

[jas3]

Jesus didn't have to have two wills to be both man and God. This is my answer: Jesus, like all other human beings, had exactly one volitional organ.

So does God have to have a "volitional organ" to have the divine will? Of course not. The Father is not composed of various parts and organs, but has a will. So a "volitional organ" is not needed for Christ, Who is God, to have the divine will.

 

[timothyu]

Jesus possessed a body. The body has a will to survive. Jesus took care of that body accordingly. He followed it's will in doing so. He, however, did not use His spirit or body to seek gain at other's expense. He did not take for His body more than it needed. However regarding His deeds, He only did the will of the Father, as He said. In the Lord's Prayer He said the Father's will be done in earth as it is in Heaven. Servitude to the will of His body. Servitude to the will of the Father.