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Did Jesus claim Divinity?

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JoyJuice

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Sorry I disagree.
By the time Psalms came around, they were well versed in their own theology despite paganism around them.
That "Paganism" around them is where they derived from. Why would they divorice themselves from penning later their earlier oral traditions? They weren't immune to the theology of outside nations, in fact, it can be found in the Bible itself.

Again, it wasn't created in a divine vaccum.

It doesn't matter, it doesn't mean deity - man is not a god nor will man ever be a lesser deity at any time, it isn't biblical.
1 Elohiym standeth in the congregation of the El; he judgeth among the Elohiym.
2 How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.
3 Defend the poor and fatherless: do justice to the afflicted and needy.
4 Deliver the poor and needy: rid them out of the hand of the wicked.
5 They know not, neither will they understand; they awalk on in darkness: all the foundations of the earth are out of course.
6 I have said, Ye are Elohiym; and all of you are children of the Elyown.
7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.
8 Arise, Elohiym, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.

It is the subordinate Gods of the congregation who rule the other nations. They are not talking about men, thus the warning they will fall and die like men.

I really don't see how the correct wording with the correct denotations can be any more plain.



 
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scriptures

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Could a mere man atone for the sins of the world?

Why do you have to use the word "mere"?

Did you not get the sense of John 3:16? That he gave his only begotten Son.?


(Joh 3:16 ASV) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth on him should not perish, but have eternal life.
 
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Nadiine

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injecting: mere is a correct wording... one is either GOD (perfect, all supreme, purely holy) or mere [fallen] mortal.
No mortals are equal to God/as God by any stretch.
 
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scriptures

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injecting: mere is a correct wording... one is either GOD (perfect, all supreme, purely holy) or mere [fallen] mortal.
No mortals are equal to God/as God by any stretch.

the word "mere" is improper since it was never use for Jesus as a man in the Bible.... If God means perfect, all supreme, purely holy then Jesus can never be God almighty himself since he is never " all supreme"......


Did you not get the sense of John 3:16? That he gave his only begotten Son.?
 
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scriptures

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not if He were not GOD - "for all have sinned and come short of the glory of God".
No one is exempt from "all" (even in Greek!)

Your missing the point again.... Your reasoning is base on "mere man"... Jesus was never called a "mere man" in the Bible....


Did you not get the sense of John 3:16? That God (not Jesus nor Trinity) gave his only begotten Son.?
 
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Nadiine

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Your missing the point again.... Your reasoning is base on "mere man"... Jesus was never called a "mere man" in the Bible....


Did you not get the sense of John 3:16? That he gave his only begotten Son.?
K, let's skip the semantics, what do you say "only begotten" means?
like literally.

We're claiming that God Himself (Christ - 2nd person of the Trinity) took on human flesh; coming FROM heaven TO earth - becoming human, for the mission of shedding PERFECT blood to atone for sin. (as per the law of God an unblemished life had to be sacrificed for atonement).
John 1:14
14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory
(one doesn't become what they already are naturally - it means He became something other than what He was prior to that change).

But since animal blood doesn't REMOVE sin, the life of Christ who IS God, had to pay for sin to remove it (once for all).
Hebrews 10:4
For it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins.
 
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Gary51

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not if He were not GOD - "for all have sinned and come short of the glory of God".
No one is exempt from "all" (even in Greek!)
LOL... So You're saying that God's only begotten Son was not perfect and was sinful... Good luck with that.

The father sent His perfect Son, who was sent with full authority. Simple really isn't it?
 
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Nadiine

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LOL... So You're saying that God's only begotten Son was not perfect and was sinful... Good luck with that.

The father sent His perfect Son, who was sent with full authority. Simple really isn't it?
why laugh? what's funny (esp. when you don't seem to get it)


ALL HUMANS SIN - that is their nature as per the fall. ALL humans thru Adam have original sin in their nature, and they sin.
"For ALL have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God". Even Christians upon their salvation continue to sin in their human frailty and make-up.

No man is sinless, and that would include Jesus Christ IF HE WERE 100% HUMAN only. Purely human.
This is where the virgin birth comes into play and why Jesus IS God in human form/taking on human form.

Again I'll wait to hear your defintions of "only begotten Son".
 
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Gary51

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Gary51

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injecting: mere is a correct wording... one is either GOD (perfect, all supreme, purely holy) or mere [fallen] mortal.
No mortals are equal to God/as God by any stretch.
Here is the post where you agree with someone calling Jesus A mere man...

Jesus is far from being a mere man, He is the Son of God... A perfect man... a sinless man...

To call Jesus a mere man... Oh the pain....

Does anyone else out there think that Jesus is not perfect or sinless... Or am I going mad...
 
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Hentenza

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So, God entrusted His son (as mere man) to atone for ALL of our sins and judge the world?
How about Jesus divine nature? Any thoughts there?
 
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scriptures

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So, God entrusted His son (as mere man) to atone for ALL of our sins and judge the world?
How about Jesus divine nature? Any thoughts there?

Don't put words into my mouth..... I never said Jesus was a "mere man".....


How about Jesus divine nature? He can be divine but not Trinity....
 
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Hentenza

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