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barryatlake
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Josiah, get it right. Matt.18;15-18 is being misquoted or purposely being evaded by you. must I spoonfeed you the correct verse?
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the Bible alone is all that is necessary for salvation.
Your denomination was certainly not in existence when Jesus made this verse of Matt.18; 15-18.
Your denomination was certainly not in existence when Jesus made this verse of Matt.18; 15-18.
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Josiah, get it right. Matt.18;15-18 is being misquoted
And there is no verse that says the Magic 8-ball isn't to be used. So do you? And if not, why wouldn't you if, as you say, the Bible doesn't explicitly say not to use a Magic 8-ball to solve all doctrinal disputes?Albion, in reference to your post # 532 ; no verse tells us that the Bible alone is all that is necessary for salvation.
Josiah, in this verse of John 20:30-31 KJV Bible, " And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples which are not written in this book: [ 31 ] But....... that believing you MIGHT have life through his name." KJV.
Because Jesus never left us with a completed Bible, He left us with "only His Apostolic/ Catholic [ universal in Greek ] Church, apostolic, because Jesus only taught His apostles for 3+ years , it was not your church or any of the new 16Th Century + later day churches.
According to some definitions of sola scriptura it is, just not in the one offered to us in post #11.
How does your denomination define its doctrine of scripture and does it have a specific section or sections that tell you that scripture alone is the only infallible rule of faith by which all controversies of religion are to be determined, and all decrees of councils, opinions of ancient writers, doctrines of men, and private spirits, are to be examined, and in whose sentence we are to rest is the Holy Spirit speaking in the holy scriptures?
If so can you quote from the official doctrinal standard, show what passages of holy scripture are used to support its declaration on this subject, and explain its meaning in your own words, please?
Does sound make a sound in a vacuum?
You were relying upon Scripture to guide your decision.
There's no guarantee that you will use it correctly.
I'm "guffawing" right now, if you only knew.Yeah, but I wasn't norming any dogma, so I couldn't be practicing sola scriptura as defined by post #11. Therefore, your guffaws betray the implausibility of your postition.
Wow post 11 is a great explanation! Thanks for the reminder.
Josiah, in this verse of John 20:30-31 KJV Bible, " And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples which are not written in this book: [ 31 ] But....... that believing you MIGHT have life through his name." KJV.
ThatTrueLight, I haven't much time to answer you with all the Scripture that refutes your belief system but here is one or two verses [ Eph. 4:3-6 ] notive your new man-made system does not adhere to"..... one Lord, one faith, one Baptism one god and Father of all " and your church does not follow Luck 10: 16,
2 Tim. 3:14 - ThattrueLight, you use 2 Tim. 3:16-17 to prove that the Bible is the sole authority of God's word. But examining these texts disproves their claim. Here, Paul appeals to apostolic tradition right before the Protestants' often quoted verse 2 Tim. 3:16-17. Thus, there is an appeal to tradition before there is an appeal to the Scriptures, and Protestants generally ignore this fact.
2 Tim. 3:15 - Paul then appeals to the sacred writings of Scripture referring to the Old Testament Scriptures with which Timothy was raised (not the New Testament which was not even compiled at the time of Paul's teaching). This verse also proves that one can come to faith in Jesus Christ without the New Testament.
So I ask again. Can the word of God alone without traditions of men interpret itself?
-snip-
Actually, I have the rest of the Sacred Scriptures, Sacred Tradition and the 2000 year teaching Magisterium of the Church. If I don't contradict those three with my personal reading of scripture, then I have used it correctly.
-snip- It's just the opinions of men (and women).