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The differences in the truth taught by the Holy Spirit speaking in the holy scriptures are caused by what, exactly?
Don't blame the earth for lack of rain.
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The differences in the truth taught by the Holy Spirit speaking in the holy scriptures are caused by what, exactly?
No. I have [given] you the official, formal, historic, verbatim definition From 1577. ...Okay, great. Now you've told us that sola scriptura is, in your opinion, nothing but a practise that does not guarantee anything.
You didn't give any scripture to justify the practise of sola scriptura. Is there some logic to justify it? The law of non-contradiction in Logic doesn't have chapter and verse from the bible to support it but it does have experience and history to point to its practical value. Does sola scriptura have something like that?
So when the Westminster Confession of Faith says "scripture alone is the only infallible rule of faith by which all controversies of religion are to be determined, and all decrees of councils, opinions of ancient writers, doctrines of men, and private spirits, are to be examined, and in whose sentence we are to rest is the Holy Spirit speaking in the holy scriptures" it is talking about truth taught by the Holy Spirit.
So the truth taught by the Holy Spirit by some conservative magisterial Protestants is that the Eucharist is a symbol with no real presence, no physical presence of Christ, but rather a real absence of the physical body and blood of Christ while others say that the truth taught by the Holy Spirit is that Christ really is physically present?
Some conservative non-Catholics say that the truth taught by the Holy Spirit is that baptism is to be administered only to those who give a credible profession of faith while others say that the truth taught by the Holy Spirit is that infants are to be baptised?
The differences in the truth taught by the Holy Spirit speaking in the holy scriptures are caused by what, exactly?
Don't blame the earth for lack of rain.
Here is the historic, formal, official definition. From 1577:"The Scriptures are and should remain the sole rule in the norming of all doctrine among us" ...
Which ones have this lack of rain?
Read post 103. ...
So when the Westminster Confession of Faith says "scripture alone is the only infallible rule of faith by which all controversies of religion are to be determined, and all decrees of councils, opinions of ancient writers, doctrines of men, and private spirits, are to be examined, and in whose sentence we are to rest is the Holy Spirit speaking in the holy scriptures" it is talking about truth taught by the Holy Spirit.
So the truth taught by the Holy Spirit by some conservative magisterial Protestants is that the Eucharist is a symbol with no real presence, no physical presence of Christ, but rather a real absence of the physical body and blood of Christ while others say that the truth taught by the Holy Spirit is that Christ really is physically present?
Some conservative non-Catholics say that the truth taught by the Holy Spirit is that baptism is to be administered only to those who give a credible profession of faith while others say that the truth taught by the Holy Spirit is that infants are to be baptised?
The differences in the truth taught by the Holy Spirit speaking in the holy scriptures are caused by what, exactly?
Don't blame the earth for lack of rain.
Which ones have this lack of rain? Specifically, which of the denominations listed in my post lack the rain you've mentioned?
Okay, let's move on. We've seen your many posts in another thread about your view of sola scriptura, others have offered views drawn from the WCF, Belgic confession, and other sources from magisterial Protestantism and I'd like to see how they justify the belief and what scripture they use for justifying it.
Speaking for the PCUSA, you will note that C67 (which I quoted above at length) says that Christ is the Word of God, and Scripture is a witness to him.
I believe the use of Scripture comes from the fact that we are followers of Christ. Scripture contains all of the plausible accounts of his life and teachings, as well as the understandings of his first followers about them. For me, the role of Scripture is basically pragmatic: its our most direct witness to the person we claim to follow. Since Christians should by definition do what our Lord wants us to, from a practical point of view that we means we should check everything with Scripture.
Christ also established a community, and gave the power of the keys to it. Hence the Church has a role is applying Scripture. We approach it as part of that community. However just as the OT people of God were held accountable by Prophets, there needs to be a way to hold the Church accountable to Jesus teachings. The only way I know is to demand that traditions and interpretations be consistent with Jesus message as recorded in Scripture.
There is a continuing tension between these two priorities: that Scripture is understood in the community of the Church, and that the Church is accountable to Scripture. Overemphasis of either can lead to serious problems.
That isn't in dispute. But it is important to read holy scripture with the knowledge that it was written to make us wise for the purpose of being saved from sin and living in righteousness.
Thanks hedrick.
I simply pointed out that in norming, having a rule doesn't equate to eliminating problems. I'm SURE you realized that, but.... The Rule of Law is that the Law is the embraced rule in the norming of disputed behavors - but it does not mandate that simply embracing that rule means therefore there is no crime, no disputes, that simply embracing that practice equates to a sinless heaven. In the same way, embracing the Rule of Scripture (Sola Scriptura) does not mandate there simply having that rule means there are not more disputes, no more wrong ideas. It simply means that were accountability is permitted, there is a rule for the norming.
Read post #11, I'm confident if you do, you'll come to understand.
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Some of the views that main-line churches propagate would not accord with Catholic teaching but on this point you are saying something that seems to echo similar ideas within the Catholic Church; namely, that the holy scriptures speak to us in practical ways about living a Christian life. That's the same as saying that holy scripture is intended to promote life more than it is intended to act as a doctrinal source book.
Of course the scriptures do teach doctrine. That isn't in dispute. But it is important to read holy scripture with the knowledge that it was written to make us wise for the purpose of being saved from sin and living in righteousness.
Thanks hedrick.
Wow....who knows who is in error? By your explanatoon,much of what you believe could be error. Furthermore, since you have no guarentee, the RC dogmas you object to could be true.
You seem to be unaware of the different between rule and arbitration.
YYes, it is at least possible that the disputed dogmas of an individual (teacher, denomination, sect, cult) COULD be wrong - unless you are Catholic or Mormon
But yes, you have a point.
If one rejects accountability and the issue of truth in the sole, singular, unique, particular, individual case of self alone
... Nice story telling, for example.
Thanks MoreCoffee
Wow....who knows who is in error? By your explanatoon,much of what you believe could be error. Furthermore, since you have no guarentee, the RC dogmas you object to could be true.
Considering many of them (RCC Dogmas) either go against scripture or scripture is utterly silent on them, I think there's little chance of that.![]()
Considering many of them (RCC Dogmas) either go against scripture or scripture is utterly silent on them, I think there's little chance of that.![]()
Who is the arbiter in the arbitration?
The RCC rejects this practice because it rejects accountability; it individually exempts it itself uniquely and individually from the entire issue (in formal doctrine, AT LEAST), replacing the issue of truth with the issue of the unmitigated power that it itself claims that it itself alone has, according to it itself.Accountability to who or what? Rejects what issue of truth?
Why does the RCC so passionately protest this practice?
Those that reject the Rule of Scripture in norming tend to do so not because they reject Scripture or have an alternative that is MORE inerrant, MORE the inscripturated words of God, MORE reliable, MORE objectively knowable, MORE unalterable, MORE ecumenically embraced as authoritative, MORE above and beyond and outside all disputing parties. Rather the rejection is because the protestors rejects accountability (and thus norming and any norm in such) in the sole, singular, exclusive, particular, unique, individual case of it itself alone, uniquely, individually. From The Handbook of the Catholic Faith (page 151), "When the Catholic is asked for the substantiation for his belief, the correct answer is: From the teaching authority. This authority consists of the bishops of The Catholic Church in connection with the Pope in Rome. The faithful are thus freed from the typically Protestant question of 'is it true' and instead rests in quiet confidence that whatever the Catholic Church teaches is the teaching of Jesus Himself since Jesus said, 'whoever hears you hears me'." The Catholic Church itself says in the latest edition of the Catechism of it itself (#87): Mindful of Christ's words to his apostles: “He who hears you, hears me”, The faithful receive with docility the teachings and directives that their pastors give them in different forms." Since it itself declares that itself uniquely and individually is unaccountable and that itself is exempt from the issue of accountability, then the entire issue of norming (and the embraced norma normans in such) becomes entirely irrelevant (for itself). The issue has been changed from truth to power (claimed by itself for itself, exclusively).
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