I made an argument that it is false to say that God's grace is opposed to His Law where I cited a number of verses as well as Greek lexicon, so please interact with what I said rather than just assert the opposite. For example:
Psalms 119:29 Keep me from deceitful ways; be gracious to me and teach me your law.
If law and grace do mix, then do you think that this verse is false? Did David not understand God's grace?
Titus 2:11-14 For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people, 12 training us to renounce ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright, and godly lives in the present age, 13 waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ, 14 who gave himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people for his own possession who are zealous for good works.
If our salvation involves God's grace training us to do what is godly, righteous, and good and to renounce doing what is ungodly and sinful, and that is essentially what God's Law was given to instruct us how to do, then how can God's grace be opposed to His Law. Was God acting against His grace when He gave the Law at Sinai? Can a house divided against itself stand?
According to Strong's "grace" is defined as "the divine influence upon the heart, and its reflection in the life".
I think it is pretty straightforward that if God makes His will known through His commands, and His grace influences us to do his will, then his grace influences us to follow his commands. So again, I see no support in Scriptures that Law and grace don't mix, but just the opposite.
Please define what you mean by this. It it legalism to think that the laws of your country should be obeyed? Was Jesus being legalistic when he lived in perfect obedience to God's Law? Is it legalism to think that the 613 commands of the OT should be obeyed, but not legalism to think that the 1,050 commands of the NT should be obeyed? I think one law can be obeyed legalistically, while thousands of laws can be obeyed in a way that isn't legalistic, so legalism is not in regard to whether you think one or many laws should be obeyed, but rather it is in regard to the manner in which you think a law should be obeyed. In others words, is it someone's goal to follow a law exactly how it is written without regard to it intent, or is it their goal to follow a law according to its intent?
We have more than two commands of Jesus recorded just in Matthew 5, so it is absurd to say that he gave only two commands. In 1 John 2:3-6, the imperative to follow his commands is associated with the imperative to walk in the same way he walked, which was in obedience to the Mosaic Law. Jesus did not hypocritically say to do one thing and do something else, but rather he taught by both word and by example, and even if he had commanded nothing, he still would have taught obedience to the Mosaic Law by example, which we are told to follow (1 Peter 2:21-22). Jesus was not in disagreement with the Father about what commands we should be obeyed, but rather he said that he came only to do the Father's will (John 6:38), that his teachings were not his own, but that of the Father (John 7:16), and that whoever does not love him will not keep his teachings, which were that of the Father (John 14:24).
Rather John 3:22-23 is summary statement of Christ's other commands. Jesus summarized the Law and the Prophets as being God's instructions for how to love Him and our neighbor (Matthew 22:36-40), so if you correctly understand his command to love and you have faith in him to guide you in how to rightly live, then you will live in obedience to the Mosaic Law. Likewise, in Romans 10:5-10, it quoted Deuteronomy 30:11-14 in regard to what it means to confess Jesus as Lord, if you correctly understand what it means to believe that Jesus is Lord, then you will submit to the Mosaic Law. It is those who have a carnal mind who refuse to submit to the Mosaic Law (Romans 8:7).
Indeed, we would be required to keep the whole law if we were seeking to be justified by it, but it is important to correctly understand which law he was talking about. The Law Paul was referring to includes the requirement for all Gentiles to become circumcised in order to become saved, so please cite where the Mosaic Law requires this or grant that Paul was not speaking about the Mosaic Law. Furthermore, if you can cite where God required this of all Gentiles, then please explain why we should follow what Paul said on this matter rather than what God said.
In addition, even if Paul were talking about the Mosaic Law, I have never suggested that we need to obey it in order to become justified, but rather trying to do so is in fact a legalistic perversion of the Mosaic Law because it was never given for that purpose. It doesn't follow that because we shouldn't obey the Mosaic Law for a purpose for which it was never intended that therefore we shouldn't obey the Law for the many purposes for which it was given.
Many Jews practiced obedience to God's law and not a single one of them had such a low opinion of God that they considered obedience to His commands to be bondage. Throughout the Psalms, David had nothing but extremely high praise for God's Law, and I don't think it is a stretch to say that observant Jews were in agreement with the Psalms. David loved God's law, delighted in obeying it, thought those who walked in obedience to it were blessed, and meditated on it day and night. Paul also said he delighted in obeying God's Law, so he was on the same page as David (Romans 7:22). God did not free the Israelites from bondage in Egypt in order to put them back under bondage to His Law, but rather it is for freedom that God sets us free (Galatians 5:1), and God's law is a law of freedom (Psalms 119:45), while it is sin in transgression of God's Law that puts us in bondage.
Agreed.