I have just finished reading chapter 13 in 'A Case for Amillenialism,' and would like to offer up a suggestion for the seventy sevens of Daniel which Dispensationalists agree is referring to the antichrist and to a deal he strikes with Israel and their enemies.
I just want to make sure that I understand this passage accurately, since I believe the dispensational view is not accurate. I want my reformed friends to correct me where I'm wrong.
I'm having difficulty with this. The ruler discussed is the Anointed one (Christ). The people of the ruler must be his congregation, therefore. But the thing is that the ruler in history were the Romans who came and literally destroyed the temple in 70 AD. Is this destruction a different kind of destruction? Like a destruction of the ways of the temple as opposed to the destruction of the temple itself? Because, though the Lord prophesied the temple's destruction, it didn't come about by the Christians.
My question is this: Could any of my reformed brothers give me a clearer interpretation, please? I feel like the outline is correct, in general, but that there are "iffy" things said in my interpretation that could use some refining.
Thanks to all who offer to help.
I just want to make sure that I understand this passage accurately, since I believe the dispensational view is not accurate. I want my reformed friends to correct me where I'm wrong.
Seventy sevens are 490 years (seventy prophetic weeks) would occur between this particular prophecy and the moment of Christ's sacrifice, the prophecies about him and visions of him to be fulfilled (and possibly ceased?) and for the Lord to be born and proclaim his anointing.Dan 9:24 - Seventy ‘sevens’ are decreed for your people and your holy city to finish transgression, to put an end to sin, to atone for wickedness, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint the Most Holy Place.
From the time that the Jews would begin to rebuild Jerusalem, until Christ comes, there will be 483 years. The city would be rebuilt.Dan 9:25 - "Know and understand this: From the time the word goes out to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until the Anointed One,the ruler, comes, there will be seven ‘sevens,’ and sixty-two ‘sevens.’ It will be rebuilt with streets and a trench, but in times of trouble.
Christ would be killed after 434 years from the prophecy.Dan 9:26 - After the sixty-two ‘sevens,’ the Anointed One will be put to death and will have nothing. The people of the ruler who will come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. The end will come like a flood: War will continue until the end, and desolations have been decreed.
I'm having difficulty with this. The ruler discussed is the Anointed one (Christ). The people of the ruler must be his congregation, therefore. But the thing is that the ruler in history were the Romans who came and literally destroyed the temple in 70 AD. Is this destruction a different kind of destruction? Like a destruction of the ways of the temple as opposed to the destruction of the temple itself? Because, though the Lord prophesied the temple's destruction, it didn't come about by the Christians.
Jesus gave us his new covenant. This new covenant was sealed with his blood and the Holy Spirit. He therefore made any new sacrifices an abomination to him, and he caused the temple to be desolate after his sacrifice. No other sacrifice was acceptable. Then he gave up his spirit.Dan 9:27 - He will confirm a covenant with many for one ‘seven.’ In the middle of the ‘seven’ he will put an end to sacrifice and offering. And at the temple he will set up an abomination that causes desolation, until the end that is decreed is poured out on him.
My question is this: Could any of my reformed brothers give me a clearer interpretation, please? I feel like the outline is correct, in general, but that there are "iffy" things said in my interpretation that could use some refining.
Thanks to all who offer to help.