Are you trying to establish that the 2520 days is 2520 years?
The 1 day for a year theory is to change the method of calculating the time lapse of the 70 weeks of years after the first 69 weeks of years in order to make predictions about Israel's return to the land and the Muslim controversy, but the scriptures are consistent with no changing
The objective is to some how make dating predictions while forcing the last 2000 years into the prophecy .... this should never be done
William Miller of the SDA did it and his predictions were wrong
Those that make the attempt ignore the breach of silence between the end of the 69th week .... and the beginning of 70th week
It is not possible to date the beginning of the 70th week which is not revealed in scripture
All sorts of attempts have been made by adding unrelated methods to the process
Absolutely 2520 years. I believe Christ himself used the day for year principle in Luke, in previous postings I've gave other references.
To make it very clear I'm no Millerite and try to claim or make predictions. Just as I'm no British Israelite just because I agree that the tribes can be traced through out the world. I don't think you are saying this is what I am, but all I'm saying is don't throw the baby out with the bath water. I think we can agree to disagree, but I would just like to add one other thing that in my opinion also supports what I believe to be true, i know you will most likely disagree as well as many others even ones that don't share your views, but hey at least you see where I'm coming from. And please realize I used to hold on to the same views that you hold, I did for 15yrs. I just think that with that view at least for me leaves over 2000 yrs of history to our present day and quite literally Gods hand in it, completely silent, things of salvation aside. And we wonder why non-christians say where has your God been this entire time and scoff that he is real and that he is not going to return. Anyway, here it is. Its a reply to whats in Italics below. I chose it because of the direct correlation of time, times, and half that many use in support that the 70th week has to 7 years. Whats below is not to point and say your wrong and I'm right but just to give a different perspective.
The treading down of Jerusalem during the "times" (Greek: kairos: G2540) of the Gentiles in Luke 21:24 refers to what will occur during certain years in our future, the same "times" (kairos: G2540), or years, referred to in Revelation 12:14b, during which the Gentiles will tread down Jerusalem as part of the Antichrist's future, literal 3.5-year worldwide reign (Revelation 11:2b, Revelation 13:5-18), during the 2nd half of the future tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24.
While I don't think this is the probably the proper place to debate this topic, I do think what you stated raises some points I believe needs a honest look. I agree "Times" in Luke 21:24 is Kairos, but it gives no set definition for how long, it just means set-time, opportune time, season. Now when you look at Daniel 7, and Daniel 12, especially in Daniel 12, he himself did not understand what the time, times and half meant. If Daniel understood what time, times and half meant he would have been able to understand that the time, times and half was 3.5 years, assuming that Daniel understood the 70th week to be 7 years but he didn't and asked the angle the meaning of it, but no he was told to seal it up, till the time of the end. Daniel is written in two different languages (I'm no linguistic expert by any means lol) Aramaic and Hebrew. In Daniel 7 is in Aramaic and Time is Iddan - set-time, moment. , Daniel 12 is Moed in hebrew - appointed time or set time. So why do we assume that time used here automatically refers to a year, none of those words give it that definition, but can we find a definition of "time", I believe we can. I find it quite interesting you referenced 2 peter 3:8 in a previous post, in 2 Peter 3:8, a day with Lord is as a thousand years. Day is hemera in greek- it can mean day, moment, period, season and time. The translators chose the word day because it was commonly used during that time period. No commentary I'v read agrees that it should be day, but they all agree that it is a Time in length as a 1000 years, look it up. Some even say a unspecified amount of time is a thousand years. So, i'm sure you see were I'm going, time=1000yrs. Now time and times, and dividing of time is quite interesting in the way its written. Its called a idiom, which is a peculiar phrase related to a certain language or culture. Example would be I feel under the the weather, if you know english you would know that I'm saying I'm sick, but to somebody who doesn't know english very well, they would give you the crazy eye LOL. Its the same as the following Hebrew idioms: Job 33:14- For God speaketh once, yea twice yet man perceive it not., Job 40:5 - Once I have spoken, but I will not answer: yeah twice, but I will proceed no further, Psalms 62:11 - God has spoken once, twice I have heard this, that power belongeth to God. As you can see they folllow the same idiomatic style, so you would not have 1+2+.5=3.5, you would have 1+1+.5=2.5, "times" in Daniel 7, and 12 is only one more not 2 more. and if time=1000, then we would have 1000+1000+500=2500 years.
I Daniel 7 its the 1st year of Belshazzar reign in 552bc. Daniel is given the visions of the 4 Gentile beasts/kingdoms that would occupy the Holy Land Israel and the middle east. And also its mainly concerning the Jews, and in verse 25 we come to the first time, times, and half or 2500 years. In 1948 Israel became a nation for the first time in 2500 years. 1948-2500=552BC. you might think that is just coincidence, but I think not. for 2500 years the holy land was ruled by Gentile kingdoms, and overnight after WW2 they became a nation no longer under Gentile Kingdoms. I believe history proves Gods word. Lets look at the second time, times and half. Daniel 12 is now concerning the Holy city and capital Jerusalem, and also the scattering of the power of the Holy people the JEWS. Daniel 12 was in the third year of Cyrus. 533BC. In 1967 the Jews recalaimed Jerusalem as their Capital and holy city. and now is no longer under Gentile rule! That was the first time in 2500 yrs. 1967-2500=533 BC. Again I believe history proves Gods word. We cant argue about what has taken place in 1948, and 1967 as fulfilled prophecy. They are no longer under Gentile Governmental Rule. The Jews, and their power were scattered through out the nations for 2500 yrs.
So to conclude for me at least, i'm thoroughly convinced that's why Daniel was sealed till the time of the Gentiles was over. So that we in our time can see it in our history as marker to let us know that we are in the time of the end and that our Lord is knocking at the Door in his Return! We might not agree, but i would like everybody to keep searching and looking for his return. For Blessed are they that keep watch, and read and listen and search out about his coming AMEN!