No sorry, they didnt speak English back then. The word is Yatsar, and AFAIK there is no Hebrew word for 'had'. I maybe wrong but I dont see it used with 'Asar' which is used to both mean "made" and also "had made" in Gen 1. It is only the context that places the 'had' in the sentence.
You are doing that yourself by imposing a contradiction on the text.
It's worth pointing out that Gen 2:19 features a Hebrew consecutive
waw, that denotes sequence in a story. That is, Gen 2:19 literally tells us that the birds and beasts were formed
after man was created in Chapter 2. We don't need to read Gen 2:19 as a parenthetical reference to Chapter 1 since the
waw consecutive implies otherwise.
So, knowing that the creative sequences in Genesis 1 and 2 do not coincide, and recognizing the very different use of language in these two accounts (Yahwist vs. Priestly), it really isn't such a stretch to believe that they were written independently by different authors at different times (in fact, it's the most parsimonious interpretation). As you say, the stories are certainly complimentary in the sense that they reveal different aspects about God's relationship with His creation. The contradiction enters only when we force our post-Englightenment perspective on the accounts by insisting that they must tell of actual, historical events. Again, newspaper-like historical accuracy was of no concern to the early Hebrews, so they would not have viewed the two creation accounts as being contradictory.
I simply said you cannot claim it was a snake exclusively, which you did by mocking the 'talking snake' account.
The text says the serpent was a serpent and nothing more. We're never told that the serpent was the devil in disguise. We're never told that it was a spiritual manifestation of evil. So when you say that "its a false representation to claim that the serpent was a physical snake", you're allegorizing the text by making it say something the surface text does not. As I said, you're (hypocritically) doing that which you accuse evolutionary creationists of.
And for what it's worth, I did not "mock" the account of the talking snake. Why is it that so many neocreationists equate the reading of a text ahistorically with mocking it? This is positivism in the extreme. It's Enlightenment-centric. And it's certainly
not the way the first Hebrews thought.
Clearly you interpret all you see from your own worldview and thats fine, you are entitled to your opinion, but please don't claim it as the truth, because you do not have absolute knowledge.
I'm more than open to being wrong. After all, we
all bring our own biases and worldviews into our interpretation of the Bible (though we try not to). But until you provide some concrete evidence that I'm out-to-lunch, I'm sold on the idea that the scientific concordism you espouse is wrong.
It doesnt mean he didnt either, so you cant rule out the possibility
Come on, marktheblake. You cited the example of Jesus referencing Genesis as evidence that Jesus bought into the story as history. Now you're saying we can't tell either way. You're not being very convincing.
Sorry but a kid can go to the library and grab an Enid Blyton and World at War, and immediately tell the difference.
This is just hearsay. And a red herring at that. It doesn't warrant further discussion.
Only after you provide evidence that your absolute interpretation of scripture is the way it was meant to be understood.
My position is that the Bible is an accomodation to the context, culture, and understanding of human beings. That is, God spoke to the Hebrew people using language, mythology, and science they were familiar with. The New Testament, for example, was written in Koine Greek, an unrefined, ancient dialect spoken by very average people on the streets. Furthermore, Jesus accomodated his spiritual messages to these people in the form of parables, using language and scenarios they were familiar with so that they could understand. In fact, the very incarnation of Christ was an accomodation of God Himself so that we could better relate to Him. Our God is an accomodating God. He speaks to us as a father speaks to his child. So there you have it -- that's my evidence that the Bible is accomodated to the limitations of human beings. It's in God's nature to do so.
So again I ask: What's your evidence that God intended to supercede the understanding of the ancient Hebrews by dictating 21st century science to them?