I find it interesting that on a poll of Bible translations the following are not included: NAS, NKJV, NET, ESV, GW, ...
Oh well, if I had know this was a KJV-Only thread I would have stopped studying and translating the Greek and Hebrew and joined in.

Since I just started teaching Psalms this week at the college, I guess my time is a little taken up with that. Oh yeah, I use the Hebrew - and then check the translations. I think that's the process.
2. A good point about not being able to read the Greek & Hebrew. I asumed you knew I was refering to the closest version to the original in english was less confusing.
So, do you know Greek and Hebrew? On what basis are claiming that the KJV is "the closest version to the original in english"?
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Note too that there are several issues floating around and they are getting confused.
1. Translation (NAS, KJV, NKJV, GW, NET, etc.). The original question was "which translation?"
2. Study aids and study Bibles (concordances, maps, charts, footnotes, etc.) - Life Application Bible, Thompson Chain Reference, etc. Each of these comes in different translations.
3. Interpretation - "Rightly dividing the word" has nothing to with whether a person uses a specific translation. Heresy and false teaching have been around as long as there has been a proclamation of the Word. And the KJV certainly did not stop many of the cults that developed in the 1800's (JW, LDS, etc.).
And speaking of "wrongly dividing the word..."
Regarding "dispensation" (OIKONOMIA) in Ephesians, that particular word has nothing to do with dispensationalism as a theological system.
Regarding the Law and Gospel/Grace, the Old Testament was as much a Gospel/Grace approach to salvation as the New Testament. Read Romans 4 and Galatians 3 and Genesis 12 and 15 and ...
No, the Old Testament teaches both Law and Gospel, and the New Testament teaches both Law and Gospel. And both point to salvation in Jesus Christ. Or at least that is what Jesus proclaimed (John 5:39; Luke 24:44-49; etc.)
- even the KJV teaches that.
