Right, I understood that from your earlier post. I don't doubt that you believe that God *could* have been present and even *might* have been present.All I can say at this point is that we do indeed know from the context of the Scriptures what Jesus used in the institution of His supper as He commanded. But be it far from me or anyone else to dictate what God could or would do by His own grace and mercy.
What I'm asking, in Lutheran terms is, did they have Christ's promise He *was* present, or if He was present, was His presence some form of special grace?
Do you believe that when they celebrated the Eucharist with leavened bread (and by extension when we, the EO, still celebrate it as such, never having changed with the West), that they had and we have Christ's promise?
Grace and peace,
John
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