Col.2{16} uhhh...cording to scripture

[bugkiller]

my point has alway been, why would God want to take us away from what paul describes as "holy, just, and good (rom 7:12)?


did paul not say that he served the law of God (rom 7:25)?

I dunno. Why would God have His prophet lie? Or was it really His prohet and not a false prophet?

bugkiller

 

[bugkiller]

who care's what they or we say?


why can't we just go on what the Christ said:


John 11:9-10(NKJV)
9Jesus answered, “Are there not twelve hours in the day? If anyone walks in the day, he does not stumble, because he sees the light of this world.
10But if one walks in the night, he stumbles, because the light is not in him.”


Jesus mentions a twelve hour day period and then He mentioned the night.


from there it seems to be simple mathematics, right?

bottom line, it's what He says. He's the Word of God (jn 1:1)!

and when He mention days, i think He knows what He's talking about (matt 12:40)!

You be a funnin me, dude. Jesus is not saying one walk all day or for 12 hours. Jesus is clearly talking about day light.

bugkiller

 

[bugkiller]

Getting back to the original reason for this thread, which was to figure out what Col.2{16} was talking about i would like to point out what ive found concerning this {found in posts 43-46} and ask if anyone can find that what ive found aint what im lookin for.

PM me with the answer you want and I will post it.

bugkiller

 

[LittleLambofJesus]

Originally Posted by RibI Col. 2:14 is one verse people love to use to try to say that Paul did away with God’s Law.
We need to understand what this verse is really talking about.,,,,,,,,,

Originally Posted by LittleLambofJesus I agree!

Canceled, blotted-out, out-rubbed

#1813 used 5 times in 5 verses according to ISA.

1 time each in Acts and Coloss 2, 3 times in Revelation.

Perhaps we should make a seperate thread on that

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[Frogster]

bumpbumpbumpbump

 

[LittleLambofJesus]

The law is forever in that he who is forever completed all ceremonial righteousness of the law and now mediates a new covenant for us before God.

QFT!




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[LittleLambofJesus]

Originally Posted by Yab Yum Lots of heat and no light as usual.

"The hand-writing of the decree which was against us, which was contrary to us" is not the same thing as "the moral law".

"Cheipographon" does not mean "written code" as in NIV. It means "certificate of debt" as in NASB. in other word, it is a record of debt, like a credit card bill.

The “demands” or statuatory implications of the handwritten record are only those of debt, not those of the Mosaic Law.
Colossians 2:14 and Paul’s Letter Carriers – Catholic Bible Student | Catholic Bible Student - A Blog About the Bible, Catholicism and the Habit of Study

ceirografon:
a note of hand or writing in which one acknowledges that money has either been deposited with him or lent to him by another, to be returned at the appointed time
Cheirographon - New Testament Greek Lexicon - New American Standard

;61968324]Written code is always a related to a or the law and not a result of violating the law.
Even in English decrees and ordinances are not records of violation. They are in place to ofend us. That is to keep us from doing something we want. Does not always work, unfortunately.

bugkiller

Much like taxes?

Blue Letter Bible - Search Results for KJV
"decree"
occurs 49 times in 48 verses in the KJV

Luk 2:1 And it came to pass in those days [that] a decree went out from Caesar Augustus that all the world should be registered.

Act 16:4 And as they went through the cities, they delivered to them the decrees to keep, which were determined by the apostles and elders at Jerusalem.

....