He's referring to a few of the commandments of the law. "...and if there be any other commandment" deals with the rest, I guess.
Of what law. What i mean is, the use of the word law is either making reference to the 10 commandments or the 613 laws as one. Love has nothing to do with stoning a woman caught in adultery. The point I am trying to prove is that the 10 commandments are referred to many places in the bible as simply the law.
But the real question is; when was the law divided?
God's 10 commandments were seperated from everything that Moses wrote with his own hand. The 10 commandments were placed in the ark whereas Moses' book of the law was placed on the side, outside the ark.
The law was never changed.
When did not only an iota, but 603 commandments pass away?
Does abolish are blot out mean to pass away? If so then the bible tells us when. Additionally as I was trying to prove above, Matthew 5: 19 refers to the 10 commandments and not the other laws.
When was the law given to the gentiles? When was it given to us who are in the new covenant?
I hope that you know that the new covenant was made with the house of Israel and not with gentiles.
Heb 8:8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:
Heb 8:9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord.
Heb 8:10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord;
I will put my laws into their mind, and
write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:
But Paul also says something special that makes gentiles apart of this as well.
Gal 3:27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
Gal 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
Gal 3:29 And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.
There is neither Jew or Greek. The reason the new covenant is made particularly with the house of Israel is because the messiah is supposed to confirm the covenant with them hoping that they would accept him. SInce that did not happen the Gospel went to the gentiles and therefore they can be grafted in.
When did the law begin to be for the righteous and holy? When did the law cease to be the power of sin? When did the law become the power against sin?
Just one thing, if the law was not for the righteous then it why did Paul serve the law of God in his mind, why do the saints keep the commandments, why did Jesus prove keeping the commandments as a result of love and why did Paul say that love is the fulfilling of the law.
The law is the power of sin. God deals with this power and result of sin not by getting rid of the law but by giving grace. The presence of the law leads to sin and sin leads to death. But when grace steps in the power of sin is still the law but sin leads to naught because grace covers it. And it is by grace we are saved not by getting rid of the law.
And anyway, the fact that I don't steal, and the law happens to demand that you don't, doesn't mean I'm somehow under the law.
You agreed earlier that being under the law does not mean abiding by the law so I will think that you are looking at it in that way. You are correct about what you said above.
I think it's not the mosaic law he's referring to here. If I understand things correctly, the word we usually translates as "law" often actually refers to "teaching", or the "torah".
No he is referring to the 10 commandments. But he says the Royal law. He knows that it is different to the rest and here he makes reference to it as Paul did when he said that Love is the fulfilling of the law.