CAN A BELIEVER STILL SIN TO DAY ?

[Clare73]

Jews indeed need to repent of rejecting and crucifying the Messiah, but remember, gentiles were also present at crucifixtion. And it was all our sins that put Him there, so it was us all who crucified Him.

Not exactly. . .

No one forced him to the cross.
He chose to die for sin, and the Jews chose to murder him (Ac 7:52)

 

[Clare73]

Not exactly. . .

No one forced him to the cross.
He chose to die for sin, and the Jews chose to murder him (Ac 7:52)

Jews, no more and no less than everyone else, need to believe in and trust on Jesus Christ (Ro 11:23) and repent of their sin .

 

[Dan Perez]

Not exactly. . .

No one forced him to the cross.
He chose to die for sin, and the Jews chose to murder him (Ac 7:52)

Your thoughts on these verses in 1 Cor 2:8 reads , Which not one of the rulers of this age has KNOWN , they would NOT / OV is a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICLE NEGATIVE , which means they would have NEVERRRRRRRRRRRRR have crucified the LORD of GLORY .

Gentiles HAD ALREADY been set aside as written in Rom 1:18-32 . and your thoughts on Rom 1:20 where it is written THE INVISIBLE things of Him is being CLEARLT SEEN ?

dan p

 

[Clare73]

Your thoughts on these verses in 1 Cor 2:8 reads , Which not one of the rulers of this age has KNOWN , they would NOT / OV is a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICLE NEGATIVE , which means they would have NEVERRRRRRRRRRRRR have crucified the LORD of GLORY

1 Co 2:8 is about the rulers, such as the chief priests, Pilate and Herod Antipas (Lk 24:20), who would not have crucified the Lord of Glory had they understood God's secret wisdom (Christ), and their ignorance being sin because it was willing and willful ignorance (as in 2 Pe 3:5).

Gentiles HAD ALREADY been set aside as written in Rom 1:18-32 . and your thoughts on Rom 1:20 where it is written THE INVISIBLE things of Him is being CLEARLT SEEN ?

dan p

Ro 1-3 is about unrighteousness, where Paul is establishing the unrighteousness of all mankind, both Gentile (1:18-32) and Jew, (2:1-3:8)
"so that every mouth may be silenced and the whole world held accountable to God" for unrighteousness (Ro 3:19).

In Ro 1:20, Paul is treating of the Gentiles, who are without excuse for not glorifying God and giving thanks to him (Ro 1:21), because the invisible things about God; i.e., his existence, eternal power and divine nature, are clearly seen in creation.

 

[eleos1954]

1 JOHN 2:1 reads That if any man SIN , we have an advocate with the Father Jesus Christ the righteous .

Then in 1 John 5:18 reads And we know that whosoever is BORN OF GOD SINNETH NOT .

They seem to contradict each other ?

How can anyone EXPLAIN why?

The Greek word SIN is HAMARTANO in 1 John 2:1 '

The Greek word in 1 John 5:18 SINNETH is also HAMARTANO

And the Greek following SINNETH is the Greek word NOT is OV and this Greek word OV is a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICLE NEGATIVE and means that person cannot SIN >

Give it a shot ?
What say you ?

dan p

Yes, of course we can still sin.

Through the power of the Holy Spirit we can overcome the temptation to sin. We will never be perfect.

Also, we can give into that temptation and sin. We always have choice ... God does not interfere with our choices.

If we give into the temptation and do sin, we are to repent and ask for forgiveness, and He forgives us.

The point is ... we make our own choices and He knows some of those choices will not be good ones and has provided the remedy
of of our bad choices through Jesus. Amen

 

[St_Worm2]

I believe that 1 John epistle was definitely written TO Israel and not to the BODY OF CHRIST .

Hello Dan, if memory serves, John's 1st Epistle is believed to have been authored towards the end of his life (AD 85-90) in the Gentile city of Ephesus (and, no doubt, was first read to the members of his congregation there). If you don't mind me asking, what evidence did you find to the contrary (that this Epistle was meant for Israel alone and not the Church)? Thanks!

As far as whether a believer can still sin or not, it seems to me that 1 John 1-2 tells us that we Christians will continue to struggle with sin throughout the balance of our lives here. The Apostle John makes that especially clear for us, in 1 Jn 1:8 - 2:14, when he includes himself in the mix (along with other believers from all walks/all levels of the faith in the church, from babe to elder in Christ, IOW .. e.g. see v12-14 below) as one who still sinned and, therefore, as one who still needed to be forgiven and cleansed by God of his ongoing sins* on this side of the grave .. 1 John 1:9.

Please take note of the pronouns below in bold.

1 John 1​

8 If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us.​

9 If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.​

10 If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar and His word is not in us.​

​

1 John 2​

1 My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous;​

2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world.​

3 By this we know that we have come to know Him, if we keep His commandments.​

4 The one who says, “I have come to know Him,” and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him;​

5 but whoever keeps His word, in him the love of God has truly been perfected. By this we know that we are in Him:​

6 the one who says he abides in Him ought himself to walk in the same manner as He walked.​

7 Beloved, I am not writing a new commandment to you, but an old commandment which you have had from the beginning; the old commandment is the word which you have heard.​

8 On the other hand, I am writing a new commandment to you, which is true in Him and in you, because the darkness is passing away and the true Light is already shining.​

9 The one who says he is in the Light and yet hates his brother is in the darkness until now.​

10 The one who loves his brother abides in the Light and there is no cause for stumbling in him.​

11 But the one who hates his brother is in the darkness and walks in the darkness, and does not know where he is going because the darkness has blinded his eyes.​

​

12 I am writing to you, little children, because your sins have been forgiven you for His name’s sake.​

13 I am writing to you, fathers, because you know Him who has been from the beginning. I am writing to you, young men, because you have overcome the evil one. I have written to you, children, because you know the Father.​

14 I have written to you, fathers, because you know Him who has been from the beginning. I have written to you, young men, because you are strong, and the word of God abides in you, and you have overcome the evil one.​

God bless you!!

--David
p.s. - this is basically a blind post (I just skimmed it quickly), so if this has already been discussed, I apologize. I've gotta go right now, but I hope to return later this evening.

*edit: I thought that I should add that when I spoke of "ongoing" sins above, I was not referring to the continual "practice" of sinning (that of an ongoing, sinful "lifestyle", if you will), because a perpetual, impenitent, sinful lifestyle is some of the best evidence that we have that we/someone else is NOT saved. This kind of sinfulness is, in point of fact, what I believe the Apostle is referring to specifically in 1 John 3:9, for instance.

 

[Dan Perez]

Beza Greek New Testament, Stephanus Textus Receptus, Scrivener's textus receptus, Greek Orthodox Church, Greek New Testament 1904, and all other Greek versions of NT, that I could find, have the word ἁμαρτάνει (hamartanei) so I don't know where you getting hamartano from.

Even if it was hamartano, you keep ignoring 1 John 1:8-10 'If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.' So if John says in the same book that we DO sin, then we must ask ourselves why it seems that 1 John 5 18 is different.

Or are you telling me you live a perfect sinless life? Because not even the biggest men of faith from OT did that, men like Abraham, Moses, king David etc.

I have never said or believe that even those saved by GRACE ( Eph 2:8 , or Rom 10:10 and 9 ) have not sinned and have just POST and OP on 1 Cor 3;14-17 ,

dan p

 

[Psalm 27]

1 JOHN 2:1 reads That if any man SIN , we have an advocate with the Father Jesus Christ the righteous .

Then in 1 John 5:18 reads And we know that whosoever is BORN OF GOD SINNETH NOT .

They seem to contradict each other ?

How can anyone EXPLAIN why?

The Greek word SIN is HAMARTANO in 1 John 2:1 '

The Greek word in 1 John 5:18 SINNETH is also HAMARTANO

And the Greek following SINNETH is the Greek word NOT is OV and this Greek word OV is a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICLE NEGATIVE and means that person cannot SIN >

Give it a shot ?
What say you ?

dan p

The key phrase in 1 john 2:1 is 'if we sin'...

We don't actually have to sin. I know it sounds impossible, but it's true...

'Jesus Believers have a choice, to serve God, or serve the devil'

 

[Dan Perez]

As in Chapter three of 1 John, there is more to this than just never sinning.

The entire issue is resolved when you realize what part of you was "born again."
Was your body born again? No. You have the same old bod you had before.
Was your soul born again (mind, will, emotions)? No. You have the same mind you had before.
Your spirit was born again. It is a new creation, all the old adamic spirit is gone/
And so the answer is that only your spirit cannot sin. The fullness of this can be seen in chapter three of the same epistle.

1 John 3:9 KJV
9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him:
and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.

The "seed of God" is not in your body or your mind... it is in your spirit.
The spirit that has been born into us cannot sin because it is born of God. Your body and soul are not born of God, and sin is still possible.
If we follow the inclinations of our reborn spirit, we will never sin! But if we listen to our bodies and unrenewed minds, sin is still there.

I think verse 4 of the same chapter renders the thought much better by using the word "whatsoever" rather than "whosoever.

1 John 5:4 KJV
4 For whatsoever is born of God overcometh the world:
and this is the victory that overcometh the world, even our faith.

When we hear the word "whosoever," we tend to think of the whole man, spirit and soul and body." But the word "whatsoever" depersonalizes the idea, rendering it as only a part of us, or an organ rather than the person.

I checked 1 John 3:9 and I see the Greek word for GOD / THEOS , BUT ,

I do not see the Greek word for SPIRIT /, PNEUMA ?

dan p