WOULD YOU LIKE ME TO PROVIDE THE HEBREW TEXTS FOR YOU? THEN YOU CAN TELL US WHERE CARM, AND THE BIBLE TRANSLATORS MESSED UP, OR THAT THE CONTEXT IS WRONG.
Don't bother. Instead let me post an extract from a post I made a little more than a year ago:
ואת־זכר לא תשכב משכבי אשה תועבה הוא׃
Leviticus 18:22
Such a short verse. Only seven words, two and a half of them are auxilliaries of so little account that most dictionaries and concordances do not even index them.
The five words of consequence are:
ואת־זכר With the male/man
תשכב to lie
משכבי the lyings
אשה of the female/woman/wife
תועבה is taboo.
The meaning of the verse seems clear, especially if you already "know" what it is supposed to say: "Sex with a man is sin."
But there is some degree of controversy on four of the five words. I'll discuss the first three together, since together they define the act. I'll look at the fourth afterward
תשכב and משכבי -- these are not forms of the same word, although their respective root words both mean "to lie (down)" and, in fact, both are very closely related.
משכבי -- "the lyings" comes from a root word which simply means to lie down. משכבי appears 46 times in the Hebrew scriptures. 39 times it is translated "bed" or "couch" and usually refers either to a piece of furniture that one lies down on or "taking to one's bed" in illness or injury. Skipping over this verse and the related Leviticus 20:13, there are 8 verses (including three of the verses where it was translated as "bed") where it refers to someone with whom the subject has shared a bed, usually a wife or concubine.
תשכב -- "to lie" also comes from a root word which simply means to lie down. But when it is used in a clearly sexual situation there is almost always an element of non-consent involved, and often outright rape.
אשה -- "of the woman" can simply mean female as זכר means either man or male. But it can also mean woman in the particular sense of wife (or concubine). This can be important if you choose to translate "the lyings" as bed-partner.
So some possible translations of the taboo act are:
1. Lying (sexually) with a man as you would with a woman;
2. Lying (sexually) with a man in the bed you share with your wife;
3. Lying (for any purpose, even sleep) with a man in the bed you share with your wife;
4. Raping a man (even if in a manner that the Bible seems to allow for raping a woman);
5. Raping a man in the bed you share with your wife;
6. Lying (sexually) with your wife's lover;
7. Lying (sexually) with your wife and her lover;
8. Raping your wife's lover.
There are other combinations, but they are rather unlikely to be the best way to translate the description of the taboo act.
The most likely translation is the traditional one (1), although we can't entirely rule out (4), (6), (7), or even (2).
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תועבה -- "is taboo" was translated as "abomination" in the AV, before the word taboo entered the English language. Because of its familiarity, many modern translations also translate תועבה as "abomination," despite the fact that "abomination" has aquired a much stronger and visceral connotation in the last 400 years.
To appreciate the meaning of תועבה we have to compare it with two other Hebrew words which are also often translated as "abomination": ושקץ and זמה.
ושקץ is a defilement which is temporary. You wash away the offending taboo and thereafter the person or object usually are considered unclean only until the next morning.
תועבה is a stronger defilement which requires a blood sacrifice to expiate. Usually it implies contamination not by a natural agent (such as a woman's menses or a man's sperm) as is the case of ושקץ, but by association with heathen practices, especially idolatry.
זמה is a moral (often sexual) transgression and is more often translated as wickedness rather than abomination.
So if the act was banned because it is an immoral sexual practice, it would be labelled זמה, wickedness, not תועבה, taboo. It is תועבה for the same reason that too close a fraternization with the heathens, or cross-dressing are תועבה -- it is a non-mixing law like not wearing mixed fabrics, to remind the Jews not to mix with the "Nations." This is confirmed in the verses in Leviticus 18, and 20 which follow after the lists of banned actions, of which "lying with a male" is just one.
The first scripture in Leviticus says that it is an abomination for a man to lie with another man as he would lie with a woman. Obviously this is referring to sexual relationship and it is condemned. The second scripture in Leviticus says the same thing. The third scripture in 1 Corinthians outright condemns homosexuality.
I looked at Leviticus 18:22 above, much more closely than CARM does. I concluded that it is likely that the ban was a "separation" law, saying that the Jews must not adopt pagan practices. This, in turn suggests that there may have been a specific pagan ritual that the writer had in mind, though that is not a certainty.
Leviticus 20:13 repeats the ban in almost the exact same words. Paul either coined the word αρσενοκοιται or he used a rare (and previously undocumented) word peculiar to Greek-speaking Jews. I am convinced that the word directly relates to the Levitical ban, so an understanding of the use of the word in 1 Corinthians 6 and 1 Timothy 1, is dependent on the proper understanding of the original ban. Thus, all four of these verses have the same view on the banned activity.
And finally, Romans clearly describes a homosexual act as being indecent. WHAT DOES A PAGAN PHILOSOPHER HAVE TO DO WITH SCRIPTURE??? (((SHAKING MY HEAD)))
I thought you claimed to have studied the original documents. How could you have done that and not know that in his letter to the Romans, Paul borrows several ideas from Plato, and that the very lines you showcase are not
Paul's but Plato's?
And whether one makes the observation in earnest or in jest, one certainly should not fail to observe that when male unites with female for procreation the pleasure experienced is held to be due to nature, but contrary to nature when male mates with male or female with female, and that those first guilty of such enormities were impelled by their slavery to pleasure.
-- Plato Laws: Book 1 Line 636c
Yes, There are differences, Paul did not quote directly. Examining Paul's changes, and the likely reasons behind them only show that Paul went out of his way to downplay the "homosexual" elements in Plato's example. But the results of that examination could fill several discussion threads, and there is still more of your post to respond to.
There is no mistake about it, the view of homosexuality in the Old Testament as well as the New, is a very negative one. It is consistently condemned as being sinful.
Well, as far as the Old Testament goes, rape is certainly condemned, especially when the victim is male. And "man-lying" is taboo, but whether "man-lying" is rape, an idolatrous sexual rite, gay sex in general, or even taking one of the two positions (the one considered the "active" role) in one specific sexual act is something not agreed on.
But we have only just begun to look at the New Testament.
Whether or not people of the 21st-century think homosexuality is acceptable or not has absolutely no bearing on whether or not it is sinful before God. God exists and he is the standard of righteousness. Whether or not anyone believes this or believes that morality is a flowing and vague system of development over time, has no bearing on truth.
It may surprise you to discover that I agree with everything in this paragraph up to this point.
God has condemned homosexuality as a sin in the Bible.
But this is simply not true, as stated. There are many forms that sexual immorality can take, and many other sins that have a sexual component, and the sex of the victim has no bearing on these crimes, and so one is not shielded from the consequences of sin by being gay, but homosexuality itself is not unequivocally condemned.