Cappadocious
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Have they fixed Psalm 51 in the nrsv yet?
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Capp, you so often manage to mention issues I am unaware of. I must thank you though, since I'd never know to ask.Have they fixed Psalm 51 in the nrsv yet?
Capp, you so often manage to mention issues I am unaware of. I must thank you though, since I'd never know to ask.
So what's wrong with Psalm 51?
NRSV derives from the RSV, so the 1971 2nd Edition should suit you.My ideal would be NRSV with less ham-handed gender-neutral wording.
Ah, I see. Thank you very much.RSV:
Against thee, thee only, have I sinned,
and done that which is evil in thy sight,
so that thou art justified in thy sentence
and blameless in thy judgment.
Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity,
and in sin did my mother conceive me.
NRSV:
Against you, you alone, have I sinned,
and done what is evil in your sight,
so that you are justified in your sentence
and blameless when you pass judgment.
Indeed, I was born guilty,
a sinner when my mother conceived me.
All 4 commentaries I consulted, including Calvin, believe that this is the sense.Indeed, I was born guilty,
a sinner when my mother conceived me.
You know, like an explanation of why that's their reading.Not sure what you're asking
I don’t read Hebrew, so I can just look at what words are there. There aren’t really connectives. There’s just
born guilty
sin my mother conceived me
Of course it’s possible that the grammar provides more specific connections. But I don’t get the impression from the commentaries that this is the case. Word commentary summarizes various views, and they have to do with overall readings of what Scripture means by sin, not specific grammatical constructs. So they say one traditional interpretation thinks “conceived” “hints at the beast-like element in the act of coition,” and understands the essence of the “desire for knowledge of good and evil” in Gen 3 as being sexual.
“However, this influential interpretation is dubious. That sexual desire is the “archetypal sin” of Gen 3 is very doubtful (see commentaries). Dalglish points out that “nowhere in the Old Testament is the legitimate act of coition referred to as sinful” (Psalm Fifty-One, 119). Such passages as Gen 1:28; 9:1, 7; 29:31; 30:22, 23; Ruth 4:13; Job 10:8–12; Ps 139:13–16 make it extremely difficult to maintain any inherent sinfulness in sexual intercourse, conception, and birth.”
Here’s what the NET Bible says:
Look, I was guilty of sin from birth,
a sinner the moment my mother conceived me.
tn Heb “Look, in wrongdoing I was brought forth, and in sin my mother conceived me.” The prefixed verbal form in the second line is probably a preterite (without vav [ו] consecutive), stating a simple historical fact. The psalmist is not suggesting that he was conceived through an inappropriate sexual relationship (although the verse has sometimes been understood to mean that, or even that all sexual relationships are sinful). The psalmist’s point is that he has been a sinner from the very moment his personal existence began. By going back beyond the time of birth to the moment of conception, the psalmist makes his point more emphatically in the second line than in the first.
Indeed NIV adopts the same translation:
Surely I was sinful at birth,
sinful from the time my mother conceived me.
Holman:
5 Indeed, I was guilty when I was born;
I was sinful when my mother conceived me.
For the Catholics, NJB:
remember, I was born guilty,
a sinner from the moment of conception
This is not an NRSV invention. Several commentaries use what is close to the KJV translation even though the commentary itself agrees with NRSV in meaning. This suggests that some scholars think the traditional translation actually means the same thing as the NRSV. The fact that several people here think there's a difference supports NRSV in clarifying it.
"in sin did my mother conceive me" does convey that it is inherited; so does born sinful.Hmmmmm.
I don't think there's very much wrong with interpreting it as being a sinner from the beginning, IF it is taken with the understanding that the newborn infant has not yet committed a sin he bears the guilt for. We all know that everyone sins, at least those who have reached a sufficient age to sin.
I personally don't hold with the "age of accountability". I know I stole a peanut at the grocery store when I was a toddler, and purposely hurt another child when playing roughly at not much older, and after I had done it, in both cases I recognized it was wrong and felt guilt, even though no one discovered my sins and punished or scolded me.
Simply, ALL humans will sin at some point, so calling us all "sinners" from that point of view is correct. The part I would question is whether a newborn infant is considered guilty and so condemned by God. That would seem to follow from the "born guilty" understanding, unless that penalty is removed however each particular theology would consider that to be accomplished.
While we do practice infant baptism, for the purpose of initiating the infant into the Church, and Chrismation, at the same time, the child is no different from an adult who is baptized. Both will still commit sins, and need to seek forgiveness. But if the infant dies, baptized or unbaptized, we trust them to the mercy of a loving God.
(Not arguing, btw, which I figure you know that, but just for the sake of any reading.)
The Septuagint has "in sins did my mother bear me", which to me suggests more the environment he was born into rather than something passed on."in sin did my mother conceive me" does convey that it is inherited; so does born sinful.
The Septuagint has "in sins did my mother bear me", which to me suggests more the environment he was born into rather than something passed on.