Hi J:
My replies within your post >
Hervey: Your actually going to tell me that Matthew 28:19, Acts 2:38, Acts 10:48 had nothing to do with water baptism in Jesus name?
That is exactly what I am saying !! You didn't hear me the first time ?
John the Baptist, by the counsel of God, baptized people for the remission of sins in water. Jesus said that it was by the counsel of God that John the Baptist did this which the Pharisees would not submit to. Jesus baptized his disciples in water. Jesus told them to baptize in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit - Jesus. All the disciples knew, previous to this point, that baptism was baptism in water.
Obviously you did not read Matthew 3:11 which tells us what and with what Jesus is going to baptize us ! ! It says it right there in the verse ---- The Holy Spirit and fire !
Have you looked at the precedental pattern of Acts?
Yes !
I suppose you think Acts 8:12 also had nothing to do with baptism in water in Jesus' name?
That is correct, I do not !
I suppose this same evanglist, Phillip, in 8:12 didn't baptise the Samaritans in water in Jesus' name, but he did baptize the Ethiopian eunuch in water in Jesus' name?
No he did not, at least not as you have explained it ! He baptized him with water, but not in Jesus' name ! Can you show me different ?
I suppose Acts 9:18 doesn't refer to water in Jesus' name either? Yet it is confirmed in 22:16 that Paul says, in recounting his own experience, "And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord."
Neither verse implies water ! You also can "wash" away impurities with fire ! "The words of the Lord are pure words : as silver tried in a furnace of earth , purified seven times" - Psalms 12:6. Fire always cleanses much, much better than water , and that is a fact, even though God's Word already says it !
Wash away doesn't refer to the act of faith working with obedience to immerse himself in the waters calling on the name of Jesus?
Is this a question , or a comment ? To "wash" can be taken literally or figuratively.
I suppose in 10:45 when the house of Cornelius received the Spirit, evidenced by speaking in tongues, that Peter said 3 verses later "And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord" that he wasn't referring to baptism in water in Jesus' name either? Obviously Peter wasn't referring to the baptism in the Holy Spirit b/c they had already received the Holy Spirit. What could he have possibly been talking about in contrast to baptism in the Holy Spirit? Hmmm...
Don't suppose ! This record is "not" talking about water bapitsm !
I suppose in 19:5 when Paul baptized the apparent disciples in the name of Lord Jesus he didn't immerse them in the water either? He even contrasted it with John the Baptist baptism of repentace of the remission (forgiveness) of sins in water. Paul said they needed to get baptized in Jesus' name for the remission of sins now!
And especially in Acts 19:5 Paul did not baptize them with water ! The Name of Jesus Christ , yes. And they received the baptism of the Holy Spirit and fire -- Matthew 3:11 and Acts 2:3.
Paul, even wrote to Roman Christians, clarifying and giving understanding to their water baptismal in Jesus' name experience by noting that they were baptized in Jesus' name into His death (water baptism in Jesus' name) and raised with Him by the Holy Spirit who raised up Jesus (baptism in the Spirit).
You must be thinking of Romans 6:3 thru 10 ? If so, there is absolutly no mention of water baptism in these verses ! But if you are one to add things to scripture that is not there, it is your neck .
Like a penguin can't fly, neither can that argument (b/c it doesn't say "water") of yours fly.
Folks, the Word of God is true, let every man be a liar that says contrary to the Word.
Jesus said Himself, "It becometh us to fulfil all righteousness."
I think the problem is now, > Are you listening and reading what is written ? ?
Love IN Christ - HErvey