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Cajun Huguenot

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All churches that date back to the earliest Churches of Asia, Africa, and Europe, even to this day, hold to infant baptism. I think that information speaks volumes, and should give any Christians pause before he or she simply dismisses the idea of infant baptism without a thorough study. This is especially true when we notice that the early church fathers disagreed and debated many things, but they did not debate this subject.

All those ancient Churches were paedobaptist churches as far back as we can see. This includes the Greek Orthodox, The Coptic Church of Egypt, the Ethiopian Church, The Arminian Church, The Assyrian and Chaldean Churches of Iraq, the Lebanese and Palestinian Orthodox Churches and of course the Western or Latin Church which split in the 16th Century into Protestant and Roman Catholic camps, both of which were and are paedobaptists.

The Fathers debated many things (like we do today) but they never debated whether the children of believers should be baptised. That was a given in their world and the answer for them is a clear YES. The only objection to infant baptism in the early Church came from Tertullian (160-225 AD), and even he admits, at that early date, to the common practice of infant baptism. If you’ve read any of Tertullian's polemical writings, than you know that he was not one to pull his punches. But let's look at his argument against infant baptism.


Tertullian wrote:
According to circumstance and disposition and even age of the individual person, it may be better to delay Baptism; and especially so in the case of little children. Why, indeed, is it necessary -- if it be not a case of necessity -- that the sponsors to be thrust into danger, when they themselves may fail to fulfill their promises by reason of death, or when they may be disappointed by the growth of an evil disposition? Indeed the Lord says, 'Do not forbid them to come to me'

Let them come, then, while they grow up, while they learn, while they are taught to whom to come; let them become Christians when they will have been able to know Christ! Why does the innocent age hasten to the remission of sins? ...For no less cause should the unmarried also be deferred, in whom there is an aptness to temptation -- in virgins on account of their ripeness as also in the widowed on account of their freedom -- until they are married or are better strengthened for continence. Anyone who understands the seriousness of Baptism will fear its reception more than its deferral. Sound faith is secure of its salvation! ( On Baptism; Chapter XIV)

Notice: Tertullian is the best my credobaptist (believer's baptism only) friends have in the early church to support their position, and he argues against the baptism of infants using the same argument that he puts forth to defend his view that unmarried women and widowed women too should not be baptised. Tertullian's reasons have everything to do with baptismal regeneration and not anything to do with modern baptistic reasons. The important thing here (IMHO) is that Tertullian seems to admit that the baptism of "little children," like that of virgins and widows was common, but because of his regenerational views he argues for delay.

Tertullian is about all my Baptist friends have in the ancient church that they can put forward as an example for believer's “only” baptism. And as I said, if you know Tertullian than you know that he could be very bombastic and he usually blasted opponents, but his argument against paedobaptism is quite feeble.


Justin Martyr (110-165 A.D.) says "And both men and women who have been Christ's disciples since infancy, remain pure, and at the age of sixty or seventy years ..."


Irenaeus (circa 125-202 AD) was a disciple of Polycarp (69-155 A.D.), who was a disciple of the Apostle John. Irenaeus wrote to a friend who was also a disciple of Polycarp that "I saw thee when I was still a boy in Lower Asia in company with Polycarp... I distinctly remember the incidents of that time better than events of recent occurrence...I can describe the very place in which the Blessed Polycarp used to sit when he discoursed...his personal appearance...and how he would describe his intercourse with John and with the rest who had seen the Lord, and how he would relate their words."


Lets look at what else Irenaeus wrote:
He [Jesus] came to save all through himself; all, I say, who through him are reborn in God: infants, and children, and youths, and old men. Therefore he passed through every age, becoming an infant for infants, sanctifying infants; a child for children, sanctifying those who are of that age . . . [so that] he might be the perfect teacher in all things, perfect not only in respect to the setting forth of truth, perfect also in respect to relative age. (Against Heresies2:22:4 [written between A.D. 155 to 189])


Let's now look what Hippolitus wrote his work Apostolic Tradition in 215 AD. He said:
And they shall Baptize the little children first. And if they can answer for themselves, let them answer. But if they cannot, let their parents answer or someone from their family.

Infant baptism, when it appears in the early church, is accepted as a given. Had some Christians started to baptise babies, in opposition to the Apostolic teaching and practice, there can be no doubt that there would have been a serious debate, excommunications and accusations of heresy. But that never happened. Even the one person who argues for delaying baptism certainly seems to admit to the common practice of infant baptism in late 2nd century.

I would also add that it appears that Polycarp was burned at the stake when he was 86 years old. Here are his words when he is called upon tosay ""Caesar is Lord." Polycarp responded "Eighty-six years I have served Him, and He has never done me wrong. How, then, should I be able to blaspheme my King who has saved me." He was then burned at the stake.

My dear Baptist brethren (including my dad) have no historical validation for their view. We paedobaptisers have much more. Even the one apologist against paedobaptism (Tertullian) admits that infant baptism existed at a very early date and it was most likely) the norm in his day. Other Fathers, who are his contemporaries, consider it the normal and Apostolic position of the Church.

My Baptists brethren argue that the church slipped from believer's baptism "only" with not one Christian standing up for the truth, and that is (IMHO) totally inconceivable. The Fathers were men quick to debate and defend the faith, yet we are asked to believe that the WHOLE church from England to Ethiopia and India all slipped quietly into an heretical doctrine without even a whimper or one apologist standing for the truth. This is (IMHO) both fantastic and unrealistic.

Coram Deo,
Kenith
 

Tangible

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Great post, mon frère acadien !

And I know what it's like to differ from your Baptist family. They believe what they've been taught, and don't bother them with the facts. We had no family present for our children's baptisms.

To us Lutherans it all boils down to a proper distinction between Law and Gospel. They see baptism as law, but the bible plainly teaches that it is gospel. Once you've been shown the distinction, it's as obvious as the egg in your gumbo.
 
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kenrapoza

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Good post! I agree that the witness of history is clearly in favor of infant baptism. It's odd that many Christians today completely dismiss that as irrelevant. If the Bible isn't completely clear on a particular subject, shouldn't we at least care what earlier Christian scholars thought made the best sense of Biblical revelation? Especially when they were willing to shed their blood for the witness of Christ? When your faith is "privatized" and it's just me and Jesus, you typically don't care what the church has taught through the centuries. That subjective anti-intellectualism is very prevalent today.

In your studies of the early church's teaching on baptism, where did you find the concept of baptismal regeneration fitting in? Have you found that other ECF's other than Tertullian argued for that also? I think Tertullian was also one of the first (if not the first) theologian to use the categories of baptism and penance as being the "two planks" of justification that was later adopted by the RCC. (Didn't Thomas Aquinas expand that thought?)
 
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Cajun Huguenot

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The Early Church had a VERY high view of baptism. They clearly viewed it as more than a outward sign. They follow much of the New Testament writers and tie it to the washing away of sin in some sense. We see the same in the Old Covenant with circumcision.

The Jews clearly added to the biblical teaching and are corrected in the writings of the NT. The New Testament ties baptism and salvation together in some sense. I believe it all makes sense from a "Covenantal" vantage point. If we try to make sense of the wording outside of it's covenant framework we have to do one of two things. A) ignore the wording or B) make the water magical. The Jews chose be with circumcission and were shown to be wrong. The Baptist have chosen "A" which I believe is just as wrong.

A and B are false options. The correct answer is C -- i.e. Covenant. Baptism unites us to Christ covenantally which is where there is salvation. We are ceremonially clean from baptism and "in Christ" covenantally speaking. Salvation is found no where else, but Faith is required to make our salvation sure.

I hope that makes sense.
Kenith
 
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kenrapoza

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Yeah it totally does, it's basically how I view the sacrament also. I think that the efficacy of baptism is somewhat "ineffible" but that it's more than symbolic. I do think that in baptism God is speaking His word to us, confirming gospel promises and covenant sanctions for the one who has been brought near to the means of grace but ultimately rejects them. In other words, I think that the idea is covenantal, just like circumcision was.

From what I understand, that particular view probably wasn't very prevalent in the early church, and that the early view was probably closer to a RCC or Lutheran position of baptismal regeneration. Do you think that is the case or that those were really later developments? It seems as though that they didn't take the same pains to define the efficacy as rigorously and left it more in the realm of mystery, yet taking the Biblical language very seriously.
 
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Tangible

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I believe they left it in mystery (which is wisdom). I think we too often get in trouble when we try define with precision things that God has left vague and a bit murky.

I totally agree.
 
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LiturgyInDMinor

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Excellent thread fellas.

God does leave things in mystery, and that is IMHO deliberate on His part. Lot's of the church now a days forget this simple fact and try to overly define certain things. Baptism is much more than a mere symbol.


thanks for listening.
 
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Bessie

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Chiming in on the neat thread bandwagon. One of the reasons I ultimately turned away from the Western churches was due to their tendency to over define, over argue and over compartmentalize God. This thread struck a chord. It's nice to find common ground on occasion. :)
 
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FaithGuyX

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Chiming in on the neat thread bandwagon. One of the reasons I ultimately turned away from the Western churches was due to their tendency to over define, over argue and over compartmentalize God. This thread struck a chord. It's nice to find common ground on occasion. :)

Good way to put it...overcompartmentalize is a perfect word.
:)
 
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Lazerboy

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Questions...

The word used throughout the Bible for baptism means, literally, immersion. Why would the authors of the Bible have used this word if they had meant paedobaptism?

If paedobaptism is to be the norm...

...why was Jesus baptized as an adult rather than as an infant?

...why is there not one recorded incident in the New Testament of an infant being baptized?

...why was John the baptist calling adults to repent and be baptized?

Should the Christian church really be baptizing infants before they are able to believe in Jesus Christ and repent of their sin?
 
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Cajun Huguenot

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Questions...

The word used throughout the Bible for baptism means, literally, immersion. Why would the authors of the Bible have used this word if they had meant paedobaptism?

If paedobaptism is to be the norm...

...why was Jesus baptized as an adult rather than as an infant?

...why is there not one recorded incident in the New Testament of an infant being baptized?

...why was John the baptist calling adults to repent and be baptized?

Should the Christian church really be baptizing infants before they are able to believe in Jesus Christ and repent of their sin?

Hello Lazerboy,

FIRST, Jesus' baptism (like that of Apollus) was an Old Covenant baptism (washing). John's Baptism was not the baptism of the New covenant, this is why believers (like Apollus) were re-baptised into the New Covenant.
While Apollos was at Corinth, Paul took the road through the interior and arrived at Ephesus. There he found some disciples and asked them, "Did you receive the Holy Spirit when[a] you believed?" They answered, "No, we have not even heard that there is a Holy Spirit."
So Paul asked, "Then what baptism did you receive?"
"John's baptism," they replied.
Paul said, "John's baptism was a baptism of repentance. He told the people to believe in the one coming after him, that is, in Jesus." On hearing this, they were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus
(ACTS 19: 1-5)

Our baptism is not the baptism of John. Ours is the New Covenant baptism. It has replaced circumcision as the mark of God's covenant to His people.

TWO: There is no New Testament record of a women receiving Communion, would you deny them to receive the Lord's Supper for that reason?

Also, If you do you home work you will see that the norm for those coming into the "New" covenant was "family" baptisms, which certainly follows the Old Covenant form. The promise of the Old Covenant is "to you and your house" which ALWAYS included the children. That promise is repeated in the New Covenant.

THREE: John the Baptist is the last Old Covenant prophet, his baptism is NOT the baptism of the New Covenant. (See Matthew 11)

FOURTH: Yes.

Kenith
 
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