amenOriginally posted by Me4him
I've "skipped through" most of the post, reading "Ed's comments" concerning the KJV, and I'll have to say I agree with him.
I don't use any versions except the KJV, so I'm not very familiar with "other versions", but in discussion on another forum, I notice a major flaw in the NIV.
I don't recall the "exact verse", but it had translated the "day of Christ" as the "day of the Lord".
The "day of Christ" is the day of the "Rapture", when we met Jesus in the air and go back to Heaven with him, which is before the tribulation,.
The "day of the Lord" is when Jesus actually returns to the earth touching Mt Olives, and we are with him, which is after the tribulation.
Reading the NIV, I would never have distinguished between these "days" or sorted out the exact sequence of events.
The Bible isn't a book that can be read and understood in "General terms", it is written very "precise", and it's words have a very "precise meaning".
Resurrection is another word that is commonly "misused".
It means to be "back on Earth", alive.
Resurrection is used to describe the "rapture", but in the rapture, they are not "back on earth, but go directly to heaven, when they return "back on earth" with Jesus is the "first resurrection", not the second.
Overlooking these "minor details" is the source of all the confusion with "interpretations/translations".
I don't know of ANY translations that only had one translator.