Yeah IF the Earth goes round the sun then the baseline is sufficient. BUT that IF is an assumption. Therefore stellar parallax is theoretical.
Of course it's an assumption. I stated that clearly and explicitly. The point is that the assumption
works. If the Earth goes round the Sun, we should see stellar parallax. We see stellar parallax. The heliocentric hypothesis is therefore supported, since it makes testable predictions that
work.
Where is this phenomenon? Show me it please. Is there a photo or a printout of the actual observation?
Like I said, there are plenty of papers on the subject. Do a search on Google Scholar.
The stars move in precisely the right way as if we were living in a geocentric universe.
Then by all means, demonstrate how geocentrism explains the movement of the stars that mainstream science attributes to parallax and aberration.
Show you what?
But parallax is theoretical so it's not reliable. Is musings.
It's empirically deductive: we have a hypothesis that we can empirically text. Parallax is a phenomenon we should observe if the hypothesis is correct. Since we do indeed observe parallax (or, at least, something which looks suspiciously identical to parallax), the hypothesis is vindicated.
That makes it
not theoretical musings, but hard, empirically verified, fact.
So how far is pluto away using geocentric parallax? Can you show me the calculations please?
Get a telescope and do it yourself.
If you say geocentric parallax can show us the distance to pluto then maybe we do know it's distance.
Then perhaps you'd like to answer my second question: do you really believe that the stars are closer to us than Pluto?
The pendulum changing it's course is due to coreolis force correct?
Correct. The Earth rotates, and to non-inertial observers a fictitious force seems to rotate the pendulum slowly. We can predict how long it will take the pendulum to completely rotate given its latitude (the quintessential Parisian pendulum took 32 hours, I believe) - and, lo and behold, every Foucault pendulum operates exactly as we'd expect.
How does the geocentric model account for this? If the Earth does not rotate, as you seem to be claiming, what, then, causes the phenomenon we observe? Why do Foucault pendula rotate in mathematically precise ways?
If I throw something, the Earth is, minutely, spun the opposite direction.
Imagine if I were balancing on a big sports ball. If I jump off it one way, the ball will spin the other (and, if it's on the ground, it will roll away).
The same is true for the Earth. Every impact, every force applied to the Earth, exerts some spin on it. The sheer act of throwing something across the room exerts a tiny, but finite, force upon the Earth - causing it to spin.
Assuming they are the distance that stellar parallax says they are. A parallax that relies on the assumption that the Earth orbits the sun. Not admissable in court I'm afraid.
Sure it is: given the variety of methods that support heliocentrism, and given that parallax measurements yield results in complete corroboration with every other independent technique used, we have every reason to believe the Earth orbits the Sun.
The Modified Tychonic model will do just fine yes.
How deliciously unparsimonious.
Do these 'mechanics' involve gravitational forces? Coz last I checked gravity doesn't describe how one mass orbits another mass. It's just a word that describes heavyness. Are you sure theres no theoretical science here?
You might want to check again. Gravity is the force that attracts to objects of mass proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of their distance; if you doubt it exists, drop an apple. See what happens. The force that makes it fall to the ground is called
gravity. Gravity creates the tides on Earth, the volcanoes on Io, it powers the Sun, and it explains the celestial phenomena we see around us.
So, yes, these mechanics go by the name of General Relativity, though even Classical Mechanics will suffice, and we can deduce how and why the planets behave as they do.
Simply put, objects of mass move towards one another. It is our understanding of this that let us put men on the Moon (though I wouldn't be surprised if you think that was a hoax...).
But please, please, please tell me you don't believe in gravity. It will make my day, and also have pride of place on my sig.
Are you talking about coreolis force?
Correct. It is similar phenomenon that occurs with Foucault pendula: the Earth rotates beneath the falling object, creating the illusion of sidewards motion.
Is it possible that parallax and aberration are not separate but a single phenomenon that is not due to the earths motion, but due to properties of space between a geocentric earth and distant stars?
No, simply because the phenomenon vanish under certain conditions (e.g., a telescope pointing in the right direction sees no aberration, very distant stars exhibit no parallax). Besides, you're the one who believes the stars to lie within the orbit of Pluto...
A heliocentric universe explains these phenomena quite elegantly, but I've yet to see any explanation from geocentrists.
So theres no way a pendulum can display that phenomenon in a geocentric universe?
I'd be very interested in seeing your explanation as to how a non-rotating Earth in a geocentric universe can account for the motion Foucault pendula.
Of the geocentrists I've spoken to, the only two 'explanations' offered are: 1) the movement is forged, or 2) there is no movement.
