We CANT measure stellar parallax because the stars are too far away to triangulate with the true baseline of 8,000 miles. What you're talking about is theoretical trigonometry. So stellar parallax is not evidence of anything. At best we can measure the distance of the moon and a few of the very close planets.
Nonsense. If the Earth goes round the Sun, the baseline is sufficient to measure parallax. Thus, we can assume heliocentricity and see if parallax really does show itself: it does.
My question to you was, how does the geocentric model account for the observations attributed to parallax? We really do see the stars shift relative to each other in a 6-month cycle, exactly as predicted by heliocentrism.
Heliocentrism attributes this phenomenon to parallax.
How does geocentrism account for this phenomenon?
If the universe is geocentric, why do stars shift their relative position in a way that is exactly in accordance with parallax in heliocentrism? It's not just that the stars move, but that they move in precisely the right way.
Can you show how these techniques are evidential of Earth movement?
Do any of these techniques not assume that the Earth is orbiting the sun?
Yes: only parallax uses the Earth's orbit. The rest use stellar phenomena to calculate distance.
So, we
can reliably know the distance to the stars.
So, we can compare the results yielded from testing parallax with the results yielded from every other method.
And they're in perfect match.
Thus, because stellar parallax yields results that are in accordance to all the other techniques used to measure distance, we have very strong evidence that the foundational premises of parallax are indeed true - this is the core of the scientific method, after all.
In other words, the results from using parallax fit what we know, greatly supporting the claim that parallax (and its foundational assumptions, including heliocentricity) are indeed correct.
The only way we know how far pluto is away from the Earth is by using the same faulty parallax measurements.
We know how far away Pluto is because we've sent probes up there to take a look. Moreover, even a geocentric parallax can verify the distance to Pluto - which is indeed what they do.
No no, let's stay.
Are you really saying that we don't know how far away Pluto is? Are you not denying that, in geocentrism, the stars must be
at most 4 lighthours away, if not closer?
Is there any non-theoretical evidence that the Earth is spinning on it's axis or orbiting the sun?
Yes.
First, Foucault's Pendulum.
Second, the notion of a non-spinning Earth is nonsensicle. What, exactly, is fixed? If I pick up a hunk of earth and throw it, I thus apply a torque to the Earth and cause it to rotate.
Third, the stars would have to travel at superluminal speeds to orbit a non-rotating Earth once per day.
Fourth, Venus exhibits phases - it orbits the Sun, not the Earth. It follows that all the planets orbit the Sun, not epicycles among epicycles among epicycles of geocentric orbits. Thus, at best, you can subscribe to a Tychonic system, but see the seventh point for more on that.
Fifth, mechanics requires that two objects will orbit their barycentre - in the case of the Earth-Sun system, this barycentre is deep in the Sun. So the Sun moves very little, while the Earth spins around it like a ballerina. We can model these objects using iterative software - and orbits are decidedly heliocentric.
Sixth, a rotating Earth would cause a minute deviation of a free-falling object's path from the associated plumb line. That is, an object in free fall will appear to drift slightly Eastward as the Earth rotates beneath it.
Seventh, stellar aberration is the very real phenomenon whereby the moving Earth means telescopes have to be calibrated accordingly. It was the final proof the scientific community needed to discard the Tychonic model and fully adopt the heliocentric one.
Eighth, Foucault's Pendulum. I know I said it before, but it's kinda the definitive proof here:
YouTube - Foucault Pendulum Timelapse