PollyJetix
Well-Known Member
Right... except that the usage may have varied, depending on the culture of the place where it was used.If you had taken the time top read what I wrote earlier, which apparently you did not, you would know that I said that "some references do say that the word could also be translated as lightly clad," so I already said this. However, as I also noted earlier that is a secondary definition not the primary meaning of the word. The primary meaning of the word is nude or naked. The general rule in translating is to use the English word that most closely matches the root Greek word that God chose to use.
Public nudity was unthinkable among strict religious Jews.
And the Jewish culture of the day was quite religious, in 1st-century Palestina.
The Greek word may have been primarily used in most Greek-speaking cultures to mean literal nudity.
However, it is a well-established historical fact that Jews tended to use hyperbole--to blow things a little out of proportion, not being quite literal. Just like they said EVERYONE was baptized by John the Baptist... even though later the Bible says the Pharisees weren't. So when they spoke of being in their underclothes, they called it naked. Typical Jewish hyperbole of that day.
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