Hogwash. All of the early Church fathers say the Revelation was written in 95 or 96 AD. Several of the seven Asian churches that the Revelation was addressed to did not exist in 70 AD.
It appears they all jumped on Iraneaus' bandwagon, since there is no other external "evidence" (as in, NONE!) But they should have at least paid attention to the statement by Irenaeus two paragraphs earlier. This is paragraph 3:
"We will not, however, incur the risk of pronouncing positively as to the name of Antichrist; for if it were necessary that his name should be distinctly revealed in this present time, it would have been announced by him who beheld the apocalyptic vision. For that was seen no very long time since, but almost in our day, towards the end of Domitian's reign." [Roberts & Donaldson, Irenaeus, Against Heresies, 'Ante-Nicene Fathers Vol 01: Apostolic Fathers,' Charles Scribner's Sons, 1913, Book V.30.3, pp.559-560]
Note that most so-called "scholars" claim Irenaeus is stating that John
saw the vision "
almost in [Irenaeus'] day." Now look two paragraphs earlier:
"Such, then, being the state of the case, and this number being found in all the most approved and ancient copies [of the Apocalypse], and those men who saw John face to face bearing their testimony [to it]; while reason also leads us to conclude that the number of the name of the beast, [if reckoned] according to the Greek mode of calculation by the [value of] the letters contained in it, will amount to six hundred and sixty and six;" [Roberts & Donaldson, Irenaeus, Against Heresies, 'Ante-Nicene Fathers Vol 01: Apostolic Fathers,' Charles Scribner's Sons, 1913, Book V.30.1, p.558]
Please explain to me how there can be
ancient copies of a book, when the vision that inspired it was seen "
almost in our day?" Even the original book could not be considered "ancient" under this scenario.
The following may explain part of what I call, "
The Mystery of the Ancient Copies of a Recently-Written Book" (sounds like a Perry Mason thriller, yes?):
"After the text has been settled, according to the best judgment which can be formed, the work of translation remains; and that is, in this case, a matter of no small difficulty. Irenaeus, even in the original Greek, is often a very obscure writer. At times he expresses himself with remarkable clearness and terseness; but, upon the whole, his style is very involved and prolix. And the Latin version [the translation that contains Book V] adds to these difficulties of the original, by being itself of the most barbarous character. In fact, it is often necessary to make a conjectural re-translation of it into Greek, in order to obtain some inkling of what the author wrote. Dodwell supposes this Latin version to have been made about the end of the fourth century; but as Tertullian seems to have used it, we must rather place it in the beginning of the third. Its author is unknown, but he was certainly little qualified for his task. We have endeavoured to give as close and accurate a translation of the work as possible, but there are not a few passages in which a guess can only be made as to the probable meaning." [Roberts & Donaldson, 'Ante-Nicene Fathers Vol 01: Apostolic Fathers,' Charles Scribner's Sons, 1913, Introductory Note, pp.311-312]
There's your "evidence." LOL!
