Are you saved if baptised?

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Schroeder

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So if Hitler on his deathbed professed his faith in Christ, truly renounced all his sins you believe he is sitting up in heaven?

And nothing is a guarentee, just because the bible says so does not mean God is obligated to follow it. That book does not control him, an all powerful entity. He can admit and deny whom ever he wants from heaven.
again scripture says all will pass away BUT his word will last FOREVER. with this idea you can make anything up and just add the last line if one disagrees with you.
 
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Schroeder

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I agree with JDIBe and would also add that in Acts 22:16 Paul in recounting his experiences in Damascus relates Ananias's words:
"And now why do you wait? Rise and be baptised and wash away your sins." ESV

If Paul's sins had not been washed away, was he saved?
thing is SPirit baptism can do the same thing and i will bet you believe that is true that when one gets "water baptised" it is the SPirit that does the actual cleansing. Yet you wont allow the SPirit to be able to do it by itself without water baptism. Scripture says in ROm 5 that his work was ONCE FOR ALL nothing else is needed to be done to be forgiven or cleansed. His work washed away our sins all we need to do is believe that.

Nowhere in the scriptures can I find baptism referred to as


There's actually no indication in the Bible that it has to be public at all - it could be done anywhere where there is enough water to submerge a person.
I agree. i think this idea is over used.



There is a lot of symbolism in baptism - Romans 6:3-6 shows this. It's a kind of burial and raising to newness of life (spiritual raising). The person is dead in sin, gets buried in baptism and is raised to newness of life. This shows that newness of life (ie salvation) occurs after baptism.

It's correct that baptism is not magical, it is an act of obedience.

I've heard a few people say things like "if baptism is required for salvation, then that's salvation by works". I can hardly think of a thing that involves less work! The baptisee is submerged by another person!
ROm 6:3- is about the baptism of the SPirit. our receiving the SPirit INTO us our new birth for we are ruled by the SPirit and not our sinfull nature. It got nothing to do with water baptism. As for an act of obediance, we can not please GOd unless the SPirit of Christ is in us(for this in when we can be ruled by the SPirit and not our sinfull nature) ROm 8:5-10 That is why it is called GRACE. while in our sinfull nature(where we cannot be obediant) we are saved. works is not about doing JUST a physical act but about doing something to receive something, AND getting water baptized, even if it is someone else dipping us under, is, according to what you say receiving something for doing something.
Baptism is just the end of a process that starts with hearing God's word (Romans 10:17), believing (Mark 16:16), repenting (Acts 2:38), confessing the name of Christ (Romans 10:9,10). It is also the starting point of a Christian's walk in Christ.
Refrus
I noticed none of the stepps you wrote included water baptism. thats good. it believe the gospel, repent, and except hin into your heart. Like cornielus and his family did in acts 10 and shown in acts 15:8 God saw there heart and excepted them by giving them the SPirit, and as peter said just as he did us in acts 11. The begining walk is the moment you except himn and receive the SPirit in you, your washing of regeneration(rebirth, receiving the SPirit, Christ baptism) and renewal(walking in the SPirit)
 
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Schroeder

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Peter plainly said "baptism doth also now save us", 1 Pet 3:21, so baptism is a necessary part of salvation.

Baptism:
1)puts one in Christ, Gal 3:27
2)remits sins, Acts 2:38

Can one be "saved" outside of Christ and in his sins? No, therefore since 1 and 2 are necessary to be saved, then that makes baptism necessary. Water baptism is the only thing that brings about 1 & 2, "faith alone" cannot accomplish either.
lets just ignore what GRACE means and rom 8:5-10 which says you cant do anything to please GOd without Christ in you. SO the question is how do we get Christ SPirit in us. water baptism cant because HOw do we do somethinf GOd supposedly commands of use to be saved if he says we cant do anything to please him unless Christ is in us already? GRACE is being saved in your sins! Saved by GRACE THROUGH CHRIST. thats the whole point of why Christ HAD to die. for there was no way we could do ANYTHING to save us. We are place into Christ or Christ comes into us which is our new birth. only BLOOD can remit sin, which is why he died for us.
 
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MrsSeptemberPenguin

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Baptism doesn't mean you are saved. Confessing Jesus as Lord is a requirement for salvation, baptism is not. It is something that God wants us to do as a public declaration of us committing our lives to him, but it is not a requirement for salvation.
 
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Schroeder

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QUESTION:

How do you arrive at the conclusion that "faith alone" saves, when *none* of the verses you quoted above have the phrase "faith alone" in it? You would have to add the word "alone" to God's word to get these verse to say "faith alone" and we cannot add to God's word.
doesnt stop you from doing it. You add "water" the the word baptism al the time when it could VERY well be "spirit" seeing how that is what JTB said Christ would baptism with not water.
 
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jmacvols

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You are mistaken. The Holy Spirit's infilling is a promise to all, and He continues to baptize us in His power and anointing today. I witness it a lot.

Jesus came to give us all His authority...not just His twelve. He had hundreds of disciples, and the Church was furthered by their excellent witness and obedience to the call. Without the Holy Spirit's work of anointing, the Church would have died 2000 years ago!



There is no verse that promises anyone today they will be baptized with the Holy SPirit. Again see acts 1:1-5, only the apostles were promised this baptism.


In the great commission, Jesus gave His disciples the responsibility to go into all the world and teach and make other disciples by baptizing them. This is how Christ's intends for His church to continue. If what you say is true, then why did not the Holy Spirit just "illuminate" the understanding of the eunuch and "save" him on the spot? Why send Phillip to the eunuch to teach and baptize him? Because the gospel is to be spread by the disciples thru preaching.

floatingaxe said:
Luke 3:16
John answered their questions by saying, “I baptize you with water; but someone is coming soon who is greater than I am—so much greater that I’m not even worthy to be his slave and untie the straps of his sandals. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire.

John the Baptist here is not making any type of denominational or theological statement of exclusivity. The Holy Spirit's baptism is an offer for all who come to Christ. He works in us and through us who have received Him in baptism and invites us to partake in the fire of Pentecost, where results the fullness of Jesus' work in us.

Jesus Christ is not only our Saviour, but He is also our Empowering Lord...He is the Baptizer with His own Holy Spirit, ministering to us in an ongoing fashion until He comes again.

Luke 11:13
So if you sinful people know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to those who ask him.”




There is only one baptism..three parts: Water, Spirit, and Fire. Fire has nothing whatsoever to do with judgment of the lost. It is the Holy Spirit Fire.


Three different baptism:
1)There is the baptism in Jn 3:5, [no fire involved]
2)There is baptism with the Holy Spirit that occurs only twice, the Apostles in Acts 2 and Gentiles Acts 10...[no water involved with this baptism]
3)There is baptism with fire the the lost will be baptized with.

There is no baptism mentioned in the bible that you speak of above.

There is some misunderstanding about what John said. When trying to determine the meaning of what someone said, it is important to note who said it and to whom it was said. We already know John was speaking and we know what he said, but to whom was he speaking? From Mt 3:1-12 we can see that John's audience was a mixed audience. His audience was made up of believers and non-believers. Mt 3:7 tells us Pharisees were present in John's audience, and the Pharisees rejected John's baptism, Lk 7:30. In Mt 3:7ff John speaks to the Pharisees. So in Mt 3:11 when John said "I baptize YOU with water", the pronoun "you" here does not include everyone in his audience, it certainly did not include these Pharisees. The pronoun "you" then is being used in a non-personal, generic sense. John is simply announcing that he baptized with water. The same is true for the second use of the pronoun "you" in this verse, it is also used in a generic sense. John is simply announcing the promise of the baptism with the Holy Ghost and the baptism of fire, he did not promise a single person in his audience they would be baptized with the Holy Spirit. Note how the word "fire" is being used in Mt 3:10-12. John is talking about the unquenchable fire of hell, those that will be lost will be baptized with this fire. John said Jesus will baptize you with the Holy Spirit 'and' with fire. So if everyone in John's audience will be baptized with the Holy SPirit, then everyone in his audience will be lost, i.e., baptized with fire. But as already noted, John was simply using the pronoun "you" in a generic, non-personal sense, John promised no one in his audience they would be baptized with the Holy SPirit. It is not unusual for pronouns to be used in a generic, non-personal sense. Look how Paul used "we" in 1 Thes 4:17. Paul was speaking to the Thessalonians about the second coming of the Lord when he used the pronoun "we". Obviously the Thessalonians Paul was speaking to are not alive and remain today. Therefore the "we" is being used in a non-personal, generic sense.
 
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jmacvols

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lets just ignore what GRACE means and rom 8:5-10 which says you cant do anything to please GOd without Christ in you. SO the question is how do we get Christ SPirit in us. water baptism cant because HOw do we do somethinf GOd supposedly commands of use to be saved if he says we cant do anything to please him unless Christ is in us already? GRACE is being saved in your sins! Saved by GRACE THROUGH CHRIST. thats the whole point of why Christ HAD to die. for there was no way we could do ANYTHING to save us. We are place into Christ or Christ comes into us which is our new birth. only BLOOD can remit sin, which is why he died for us.


2 Tim 2:1 Paul tells Timothy where grace is found, it is found "in Christ Jesus". Therefore if I desire to be in God's grace, I *must* be in Christ Jesus. Gal 3:27 tells us baptism puts us in Christ. "Faith only" does not put one into Christ, faith only is dead. When one submits himself to being baptized, this pleases God, it puts him in Christ and in God's grace. Therefore faith only displeases God, and keeps one out of His grace.
 
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jmacvols

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Baptism doesn't mean you are saved. Confessing Jesus as Lord is a requirement for salvation, baptism is not. It is something that God wants us to do as a public declaration of us committing our lives to him, but it is not a requirement for salvation.


I am curious as to how you come to the conclusion that confession is necessary but not baptism. Rom 10:9 says one must confess with the mouth to be saved. Why don't you classify confession as nothing more than a "public declaration" and unnecessary also?
 
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jmacvols

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doesnt stop you from doing it. You add "water" the the word baptism al the time when it could VERY well be "spirit" seeing how that is what JTB said Christ would baptism with not water.
You cannot provide any proof that, for example Gal 3:27, is some kind of "spirit baptism".

Paul said there is one baptism, Eph 4:5.

Mt 28:19,20 shows that human adiminstrated water baptism lasts till the end of the world. You cannot provide a single verse that says baptism with the Holy Spirit would last this long.

Peter proves that baptism with the Holy Spirit, Acts 2:16, was a prophecy of Joel and that prophecy has been fulfilled by the Lord, hence this baptism *cannot* exist today.

How can you claim baptism with the Holy Spirit exists today when you cannot even provide any objective proof you have been baptized with the Holy Spirit yourself?
 
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jad123

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Did i get you with my title? Good.

My friend, Mike (whom you would find out about in the Prayer Request Section) starts cussing me out because I told him that being baptised doesn't get you saved. And he's screaming and cussing at me, threatening to throw me across the room (Note: This is everyday life for him) because he said, I got baptised and I'm going to heaven...

It kind of made me think....are you saved if your baptised. In the bible it says that 'If you confess with your tongue that Christ is Lord, then you are saved" But i also heard that Jesus wants you to get baptised...just curious

Baptism in and of itself does not save. But then again neither does saying that non-biblical prayer we seem to have people saying all the time either.
 
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FollowTheLamb

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The confusion I am seeing on this thread is the use of the word 'saved.' Paul uses the word in several different ways. There is the saved we use in the sense of passing from death to life, from sinner to saint, of being born again.

Then there is the salvation a believer can know-- saved from individual sins that can trap him or her and hinder fellowship with the Lord.

There is also the ongoing salvation of "being saved" (1 Cor. 1:18) which has to do with our sanctification, our being conformed to the image of Christ. This is a life-long salvation as we struggle against sin and overcome in Christ.

So some here are using the wrong verses about salvation in regards to baptism. Baptism does not "save" the unbeliever. However, the figure of baptism "saves" the believer when he commits to die to this world to live for the world to come, to die to the flesh to live after the Spirit. When a believer chooses to go that course, that believer is "buried with Christ in baptism" (Col. 2:12). That is, the believer has reckoned his body of fleshly desires as in the grave with Jesus, and those desires no longer have control of him or her. That believer has been "saved" from the life of the flesh. However, the devil will do all he can to tempt him or her back to the flesh, so it's important for the believer to understand the wiles of the devil in order to overcome and continue in victory.
 
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Schroeder

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There is no verse that promises anyone today they will be baptized with the Holy SPirit. Again see acts 1:1-5, only the apostles were promised this baptism.


In the great commission, Jesus gave His disciples the responsibility to go into all the world and teach and make other disciples by baptizing them. This is how Christ's intends for His church to continue. If what you say is true, then why did not the Holy Spirit just "illuminate" the understanding of the eunuch and "save" him on the spot? Why send Phillip to the eunuch to teach and baptize him? Because the gospel is to be spread by the disciples thru preaching.
The promise is the giving of the Spirit gal 3:14. that is what the baptism of the SPirit is. the recieving of the SPirit and its affect or work in you.




Three different baptism:
1)There is the baptism in Jn 3:5, [no fire involved]
2)There is baptism with the Holy Spirit that occurs only twice, the Apostles in Acts 2 and Gentiles Acts 10...[no water involved with this baptism]
3)There is baptism with fire the the lost will be baptized with.

There is no baptism mentioned in the bible that you speak of above.
water, and the SPirit, only two. Seems to me in acts 10 they were saved without water acording to acts 15:8.

There is some misunderstanding about what John said. When trying to determine the meaning of what someone said, it is important to note who said it and to whom it was said. We already know John was speaking and we know what he said, but to whom was he speaking? From Mt 3:1-12 we can see that John's audience was a mixed audience. His audience was made up of believers and non-believers. Mt 3:7 tells us Pharisees were present in John's audience, and the Pharisees rejected John's baptism, Lk 7:30. In Mt 3:7ff John speaks to the Pharisees. So in Mt 3:11 when John said "I baptize YOU with water", the pronoun "you" here does not include everyone in his audience, it certainly did not include these Pharisees. The pronoun "you" then is being used in a non-personal, generic sense. John is simply announcing that he baptized with water. The same is true for the second use of the pronoun "you" in this verse, it is also used in a generic sense. John is simply announcing the promise of the baptism with the Holy Ghost and the baptism of fire, he did not promise a single person in his audience they would be baptized with the Holy Spirit. Note how the word "fire" is being used in Mt 3:10-12. John is talking about the unquenchable fire of hell, those that will be lost will be baptized with this fire. John said Jesus will baptize you with the Holy Spirit 'and' with fire. So if everyone in John's audience will be baptized with the Holy SPirit, then everyone in his audience will be lost, i.e., baptized with fire. But as already noted, John was simply using the pronoun "you" in a generic, non-personal sense, John promised no one in his audience they would be baptized with the Holy SPirit. It is not unusual for pronouns to be used in a generic, non-personal sense. Look how Paul used "we" in 1 Thes 4:17. Paul was speaking to the Thessalonians about the second coming of the Lord when he used the pronoun "we". Obviously the Thessalonians Paul was speaking to are not alive and remain today. Therefore the "we" is being used in a non-personal, generic sense.
wont give this wrong notion up will you. maybe because if you did it would ruin your theology. JUST READ all the other accounts. they do not read this way at all. It is made clear he is speaking to ALL. PLEASE use t hem and write them out to defend this silly notion of yours.
 
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Schroeder

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2 Tim 2:1 Paul tells Timothy where grace is found, it is found "in Christ Jesus". Therefore if I desire to be in God's grace, I *must* be in Christ Jesus. Gal 3:27 tells us baptism puts us in Christ. "Faith only" does not put one into Christ, faith only is dead. When one submits himself to being baptized, this pleases God, it puts him in Christ and in God's grace. Therefore faith only displeases God, and keeps one out of His grace.
you just danced right around what i said and scripture. yes Gal 3:27 tells us we are united with christ in baptism. which one. it is his baptism, the one we cannot do. because we aree in sin, which is why it is called saved by GRACE through CHRIST. throguh his baptism of the Spirit. Faith only does there is a whole lot of Scripture that says this. Your insistance that it dfoesnt say "only" is so weak its laughable. It doesnt keep you from saying the word baptism means only water baptism. you insert water with it we insert "only" whats the difference. ours is backed up with scripture. Again you avoided HOW we are to submit to God if the SPirit is not in us already. STOP going around it.
 
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Schroeder

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You cannot provide any proof that, for example Gal 3:27, is some kind of "spirit baptism".
i can.

Paul said there is one baptism, Eph 4:5.
yes one HIS, Christ spirit baptism.

Mt 28:19,20 shows that human adiminstrated water baptism lasts till the end of the world. You cannot provide a single verse that says baptism with the Holy Spirit would last this long.
it doesnt say water baptize untill the end. why do you keep insisting this as well. It states CLEARLY that he will be with us UNTILL the end. HOw in his spirit which is in us. it is in us till the end because in the end he will be with us in physical form so there would be no need of his spirit in us and we will be glorified and will not need it to fight of our flesh, sinfull nature.
Peter proves that baptism with the Holy Spirit, Acts 2:16, was a prophecy of Joel and that prophecy has been fulfilled by the Lord, hence this baptism *cannot* exist today.
WRONG shown you this lots of times. You NEVER have once included the REST of the prophecy it states what is happening NOW and untill what will happen in the end days. It speaks of His baptism with the SPirit which will take place now until the end. Its a two fold prophecy.

How can you claim baptism with the Holy Spirit exists today when you cannot even provide any objective proof you have been baptized with the Holy Spirit yourself?
I live in the SPirit and not in the Flesh as in the past. how is this NOT proof the spirit is in me. being water baptized PROVES NOTHING to me that you are saved. it is how you treat me how you live your life. this is done by living in the Spirit and showing love the world cannot show. even Christ said they would know they were his BECAUSE of the Love. A love only the Spirit can show. Scripture is ever so clear in showing you receive the SPirit when you believe(truelly in your heart) and accept him as shown in acts 15:8. show me how water baptism save dyou or made you reborn. remember it has no power in itself correct SO what is giving it the power to change lives the spirit. BUT it is not in scripture this way AT ALL. water baptism was always AFTER they believed repented and accepted him. And it is hardly a discussion any where in scripture the apostles NEVER focus on it or explain it never tell us the correct way to do it never.
 
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jmacvols

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The promise is the giving of the Spirit gal 3:14. that is what the baptism of the SPirit is. the recieving of the SPirit and its affect or work in you. [/size][/font]

Gal 3:14 says absolutely *nothing* about baptism with the Holy Spirit.

The promise was made to Abraham and his seed, and one must be "in Christ" to recieve this promise. Water baptism is the ony thing that puts one "in Christ" where he can be a seed of Abraham and an heir to that promise.




schroder said:
water, and the SPirit, only two. Seems to me in acts 10 they were saved without water acording to acts 15:8.

Look at Acts 10:47,48 they were *commanded* to be water baptized. The fact water baptism was *commanded*, if for no other reason, made it necessary. Acts 15:8 does not say Cornelius was saved without water baptism, you say that, not the bible. The context of Acts 10/11 show that Cornelius being baptized with the Holy Ghost had nothing to do with his personal salvation.

schroeder said:
wont give this wrong notion up will you. maybe because if you did it would ruin your theology. JUST READ all the other accounts. they do not read this way at all. It is made clear he is speaking to ALL. PLEASE use t hem and write them out to defend this silly notion of yours.

Mt 3:7-9 show that there were those in John's audience [Pharisees] that were not baptized with his baptism, Lk 7:30. So when John said "I baptized YOU with water", this pronoun 'you' obviously did not include everyone in his audience, it certainly did not include those Pharisees there that rejected his baptism. Therefore, both times the pronoun "you" is used in Mt 3:11 it is used in a generic, non-personal sense. John simply announced the promise of the baptism of the Holy Ghost, he promised no one in his audience they would receive it.
If, as you mistakenly believe, everyone in his audience would be baptized with the Holy Spirit, then eveyone in John's audience would also be baptized with fire, i.e., everyone in his audience would be lost...for John said Jesus would baptize you with the Holy Ghost AND fire. So not only would everyone be baptized with the Holy Ghost, everyone will be baptized with fire (be lost).
 
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jmacvols

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you just danced right around what i said and scripture. yes Gal 3:27 tells us we are united with christ in baptism. which one. it is his baptism, the one we cannot do. because we aree in sin, which is why it is called saved by GRACE through CHRIST. throguh his baptism of the Spirit. Faith only does there is a whole lot of Scripture that says this. Your insistance that it dfoesnt say "only" is so weak its laughable. It doesnt keep you from saying the word baptism means only water baptism. you insert water with it we insert "only" whats the difference. ours is backed up with scripture. Again you avoided HOW we are to submit to God if the SPirit is not in us already. STOP going around it.


You "claimed" Gal 3:27 is baptism of the Spirit...you provided no proof...you just gave your biased commentary about it. Prove with scripture, example: show the verse that says baptism with the Holy Spirit lasts till the end of the world. If it doesn't last this long, then Gal 3:27 cannot be baptism with the Holy Spirit. I can show you the verse where water baptism lasts this long, Mt 28:19,20. Show the verse that promises you, schroeder, will be baptized with the Holy Ghost.
 
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jmacvols

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Waiting for your *biblical* proof.

schroeder said:
yes one HIS, Christ spirit baptism.

Waiting on your *biblical* proof Eph 4:5 is baptism with the Holy SPirit. I showed you water baptism lasts till the end of the world, Mt 28:19,20, therefore Eph 4:5 *must* be water baptism. If you claim it is baptism with the Holy SPirit you create two baptism which is contrary to Eph 4:5.

schroeder said:
it doesnt say water baptize untill the end. why do you keep insisting this as well. It states CLEARLY that he will be with us UNTILL the end.


Jesus commanded His disciples to go into all the world to teach and baptized, therefore new disciples would be made by teaching and baptizing. Without teaching and baptizing, no new disciples would be made and the church would die away. For the church to survive until the end of the world, making new disciples thru teaching/baptizing *must* be done. So anyone at anytime that participates in making new disciples thru teaching and baptizing, the Lord will always be with them. The Lord told the disciples to do the baptizing. Disciples are humans and humans can only administer water baptism, only the Lord can adminster baptism with the Holy Ghost. Therefore the type of baptism that is used to make new disciples and keep the church ongoing until the end of the world is water baptism, the one baptism of Eph 4:5, Gal 3:27. New disciples are made by water baptism, not baptism with the Holy Ghost.

schroeder said:
HOw in his spirit which is in us. it is in us till the end because in the end he will be with us in physical form so there would be no need of his spirit in us and we will be glorified and will not need it to fight of our flesh, sinfull nature.

More commentary with no verses to back it up.


schroeder said:
WRONG shown you this lots of times. You NEVER have once included the REST of the prophecy it states what is happening NOW and untill what will happen in the end days. It speaks of His baptism with the SPirit which will take place now until the end. Its a two fold prophecy.

In Acts 2:16 Peter proves beyond any doubt that the Jewish Apostles being baptized with the Holy SPirit was the fulfillment of Joel's prophecy. In Acts 11:15,16 Peter ties the Gentiles being baptized with the Holy Ghost to "the beginning" which is Pentecost Acts 2. So Peter plainly proves that Jews [Acts 2] and Gentiles [Acts 10] being baptized with the Holy GHost fufilled Joel's prophecy that God's Spirit would be poured out upon all flesh. "All flesh" i.e., mankind at Joel's time was made up of Jew and Gentile, so when the Jews (apostles) in Acts 2 and Cornelius (Gentiles)Acts 10 were baptized with the HOly Ghost that FULFILLED Joel's prophecy about baptism with the Holy Spirit. Since only the Lord can baptize with the Holy Ghost, only the Lord could fulfill this prophecy. Mt 5:17,18 Jesus came to *fulfill* the law. If he did not fufill Joel's prophecy about baptism with the Holy SPirit, then Jesus was not the Messiah. And if Joel's prophecy has not been fulfilled, every jot and tittle of the OT law is still there and in effect *til all be fulfilled* verse 18. If baptism with the Holy Ghost exists today, Jesus was not the Christ.

schroeder said:
I live in the SPirit and not in the Flesh as in the past. how is this NOT proof the spirit is in me. being water baptized PROVES NOTHING to me that you are saved. it is how you treat me how you live your life. this is done by living in the Spirit and showing love the world cannot show. even Christ said they would know they were his BECAUSE of the Love. A love only the Spirit can show. Scripture is ever so clear in showing you receive the SPirit when you believe(truelly in your heart) and accept him as shown in acts 15:8. show me how water baptism save dyou or made you reborn. remember it has no power in itself correct SO what is giving it the power to change lives the spirit. BUT it is not in scripture this way AT ALL. water baptism was always AFTER they believed repented and accepted him. And it is hardly a discussion any where in scripture the apostles NEVER focus on it or explain it never tell us the correct way to do it never.

Acts 15:8 does not promise you the baptism with the Holy Ghost. I see nothing that you said above that gives objective proof you have been baptized with the Holy Ghost.

In Acts 2:38 Peter commanded them to be baptized for the remission of sins. Here we see water baptism remits sins (saves). [No verse says baptism with the Holy Ghost remits sins, so Cornelius was still in his sins until he was water baptized] In Acts 2:21 Joel prophesied that whosoever calls upon the name of the Lord shall be saved. This is fulfilled in Acts 2:38. Harmonizing Acts 2:21 with Acts 2:38:

Call upon the name of the Lord>>>>>>>>saved
repent & be baptized>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>remission of sins


"Saved" and "remission of sins" are the same thing, they are equal.
Since there is just one way to be saved and the bible does not contradict itself, then the same thing that "saved" must also be the same thing that "remits sins". Therefore "calling upon the name of the Lord" and "repenting and being baptized" are the same thing!! Thus Joel's prophecy of Acts 2:21 fufilled in Acts 2:38. If you argue these two verses do not teach the same thing, then you are saying there is more than one way to be saved or that the bible contradicts itself.
 
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ineedunow

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Baptistm is an ordinace of the church. It is symbolic of the death and resurection of Christ. Key word is SYMBOLIC!!! It is not the real thing. The bible says that if you confess with your mouth and belive in your heart that God raised his son from the dead then you are saved. Believeing that you are saved does not make you saved. Your friend needs to check his faith. Salvation isn't initially an outward thing. It is introverted in that it has to be embedded in your heart.
 
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AllTalkNoAction

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. . .The bible says that if you confess with your mouth and belive in your heart that God raised his son from the dead then you are saved. Believeing that you are saved does not make you saved. . . .
Actually, it says you "shall be saved", not you "are saved".
And a confession of Jesus isn't just chanting his name, it's agreeing with all that he said, including being baptised (immersed) as a believer, as Jesus was, "to fulfil all righteousness". The word "confess" is homo-logos in the greek, meaning to speak the same thing.

And the point of believing Jesus rose from the dead by the Spirit was that you could receive the same Spirit, His Life - as the disciples did at Pentecost:-

Ac:2:4: And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. (see also v33, 39; 10:44-46, 11:14-18)

. . . ineedyounow, have you received that ?
 
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Dave01

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Hehe, I have seen so many of these talks.

The baptismal regeneralists loose,..

The main verb in this verse is Metanoesate (3340) meaning, "repent." This refers to that initial repentance of a sinner unto salvation. The verb translated "be baptized" is in the indirect passive imperative of baptizo (907), which means that it does not have the same force as the direct command of "repent." The preposition "for" in the phrase "for the remission of sins" in Greek is eis (1519), "unto." Literally it means "for the purpose of identifying you with the remission of sins." This same preposition is used in 1 Corinthians 10:2 in the phrase "and were all baptized unto (eis) Moses." These people were identifying themselves with the work and ministry of Moses. Repentance is something that concerns an individual and GOD, while baptism is intended to be a testimony to other people. That is why baptistheto, "to be baptized," is in the passive voice indicating that one does not baptize himself, but he is baptized by another usually in the presence of others.

That was from Spiros Zodhiates, and anyone can check the greek if they wish.


The disciples did not get baptised themselves after John 20:22,...

22 (ASV) And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Spirit:

John 20:22 was their born-again experience, but you will not find scripture depicting them ever being water baptised after that event. This event was not symbolic of acts 2 to come since Jesus said "receive ye" and not "Ye shall recieve" so, water baptism does not serve any purpose other than declaring a work of GOD within you. It is just an act of obediance, nothing more.
 
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