That is right, but it did not come from the Bible, it came from Jews who were not Christians and has prevailed even up to now as a false doctrine
Some, and particularly the ancient fathers, have connected and have read the verse:2Co 4:4 But God hath blinded the minds of the unbelievers of this world, Theophylact, and Augustine, all plead for the above meaning; and St. Augustine says that it was the opinion of almost all the ancients
The Adam Clarke Commentary. '10 Irrefutable Proofs'
Number 1. "THE RAPTURE IS THE 'BLESSED HOPE' WHILE THE SECOND COMING IS A DAY TO BE GREATLY FEARED" ... They separate the rapture and second coming saying that the rapture is the 'blessed hope' quoting Titus 2:13, and the second coming is the 'FEARED day of the Lord', quoting Amos 5:18. They believe these must be different events, because one is to be hoped for, and the other is to be feared.
But they fail to realize the simple truth that the second coming is the 'blessed hope' for the saved in Jesus, and to be 'greatly feared' by those who reject the Lord. Simple, logical truth.
Number 2. "IN THE RAPTURE, JESUS COMES FOR HIS CHURCH, AT HIS SECOND COMING HE BRINGS THE CHURCH WITH HIM" ... They say that Jesus takes His church way in the rapture, quoting 1 Thess. 4:16-17. And then Jesus comes back with the church at the second coming, quoting Revelation 19:14, which says
'the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses.".
But what they fail to realize is that the 'armies' whom Jesus returns with are His angels, as Matthew 25:31 confirms, not the church.
"But what about 1 Thessalonians 4:14, where it says that those who sleep in Jesus will God bring with Him? This surely is talking about the church coming back from heaven after the rapture with Jesus at His physical return?" Those who believe in a rapture say that the Greek word "parousia" refers to the secret coming of Jesus with the rapturing of the church and that the Greek word "apokalupsis" refers to the visible glorious coming of Jesus in power seven years later. So they believe from these Greek words that Christ will return in two phases, separated by the 7 year tribulation. Well, we have already proven from the Bible that there is
no separation between the church and the wicked until the END OF THE WORLD. But let's take a look at "parousia" and "apokalupsis", and what we will show you is that BOTH are used to describe the SAME second coming, not two comings.-So, No it's not. Rapture adherents love this verse, but they completely miss the context of what is being said here. Look at both vs. 13 and 14. Paul is clearly talking about those who are
asleep in Christ, ie, those who are in their graves waiting for His return. And what does Paul say to give encouragement concerning those who have died? He says that
just as God raised Jesus from the dead, so He will bring with Jesus those who
sleep in Him. In other words, those who have died, God will raise them from the dead,
just like He rose Jesus from the dead.
John 6:40 ...'And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.'
Please understand that VITAL point. The rapture theory teaches a separation BEFORE the end. But the Bible clearly teaches that there is NO separation before the end.
This also proves the mid-tribulation rapture teaching to be false
But Paul then shows that this "parousia" will destroy the man of sin; the Antichrist ... "whom the Lord shall destroy with the brightness of his coming [parousia]." 2 Thessalonians 2:8. So we have a problem. Paul is saying that it is DURING the "parousia" of Christ that the man of sin will be destroyed. And yet those who hold to the rapture teaching say that the man of sin will reign AFTER the "parousia". And will not be destroyed until the physical "apokalupsis" coming of Christ.
"Apokalupsis" [revelation] is also used in a way that indicates it is NOT a separate coming from the time the believers are gathered up. Peter said in 1 Peter 1:13 ..."be sober, and hope to the end for the grace that is to be brought unto you at the revelation [apokalupsis] of Jesus Christ;" Now why would Christians be exhorted to continue hoping to the end of the world for the grace brought through the revelation of Jesus Christ if their real hope was a rapture seven years before the revelation? Do you see the problems with this teaching? I hope so. But What About One Taken and One Left Behind?
Luke 17:35-37 ...'Two women shall be grinding together; the one shall be taken, and the other left. Two men shall be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left. And they answered and said unto him, Where, Lord? And he said unto them, Wheresoever the body is, thither will the eagles be gathered together.' And where was he crucified? G105 αετόςαετών αετοί eagle, compare [4421] [2206 ζέση] not a Kite a small predatory bird belonging to the hawk family, Διὸςπτηνὸςκύων, of the eagle, A.Pr.1022, cf. Ag.136 (lyr.), S.Fr.884 πτηνὸς eagle
Is the Rapture in the Bible? Biblical Truth or False?