Sabbath law explicitly starts at Moses. How exactly is this an argument of silence? Are we to also say the temple existed in Genesis since it too has a clear start and also is not mentioned in Genesis? The thing with saying it is an argument of silence means you are declaring yourself you're using an argument of silence to propagate sabbath law where there is no mention of it. So if an argument of silence as you call it should not be responsibly used the why are you using it? Silence itself is not good enough and you need support outside the silence.
I however I'm not depending on silence saying something was there before it was there. Sabbath law has a clear start which happens to be 2500 years after the 7th day of creation so I am affirming scripture and saying it indeed started when it said it started. It's not complicated and it is the natural understanding of the text.
According to the scriptures Sabbath was given to mankind
before law as stated by Jesus in Mark 2:27 when he says that the Sabbath was made for mankind. The Sabbath was made on the "
seventh day" of the creation week according to Genesis 2:1-3
before sin when mankind was in perfect harmony with God,
before Mosaic law where at the end of creation God
blessed the "
seventh day" of the creation week and set it aside from all the other days of the week as a
Holy day of rest for
all mankind. There was
no sin, when the Sabbath was made for man,
no Mosaic laws,
no plan of salvation because mankind had
not sinned.
You try and make an argument of silence as explained earlier in a detailed scripture review of
sin and law starting from Genesis 2 in
post # 291 linked that you simply ignored showing that both
God's law and sin were already known to God's people through the "
spoken" Word of God (e.g. Mark 2:27; Genesis 2:1-3; Genesis 26:5; Genesis 39:9 etc) before the written law was ever given before Exodus 20 and Mt Sinai.
Nowhere in scriptures is there any hint that God's people before MOSES did not know about or keep God's Sabbath or any one of Gods’ 10 commandments as already shown in
Genesis 26:5 and
Exodus 16 and elsewhere.
We know that according to the scriptures sin is the transgression of God's law and through the law is the knowledge of what sin is *
Romans 3:20;
Romans 7:7;
1 John 3:4. So in order to know what sin is those who sinned must have a knowledge of what God's law is. Yet we see God's people before Moses knew what sin was according to the scriptures....
God said in
Genesis 4:7 to Cain when he was angry because he did not worship God in his appointed way that by doing this it was sin. Jesus says the same in
Matthew 15:3-9 that if we follow and teachings of men that break the commandments of God we are not following God. Mankind was destroyed by a flood because of sin (
Genesis 6:5-7). Sodom and Gomorrah was destroyed because of sin (
Genesis 18:20). Jacob knew about sin (breaking God's LAW) before Mt Sinai when he complained to Laben when he left with his daughters (
Genesis 31:36).
When Potiphar’s wife came to Joseph with the aim of committing adultery, Joseph knew it was sin and protested saying how then can I do this great wickedness, and sin against God? (
Genesis 39:9).
As time goes by God destroys mankind for evil and sin with a flood as well as Sodom and Gomorrah with fire and the Egyptians with plagues *
Genesis 6:5-13;
Genesis 13:10-13; 18:20-33; 19:24;
Exodus 9:13-14. If there was no knowledge of sin there would be no punishment for it. God’s WORD is very clear that all of God’s Commandments were kept by God’s people before the written WORD through the Spoken WORD of GOD.
As shown above God's Word (not mine) disagrees with your argument of silence which is simply
not an argument at all because the scriptures show that God's people knew Gods' law before the written law at Mt Sinai in Exodus 20 through the "spoken" Word of God as shown through the scriptures here and elsewhere.
.................
Question for you dear friend. Why does it matter even if you claim Gods' people did not keep God's laws before
Exodus 20 (which has already been shown to not be true through the scriptures) when God gave his law at
Exodus 20? The fact remains God's law was given and it is the 10 commandments in the new covenant scriptures that give us the knowledge of what sin is today according to
Romans 3:20;
Romans 7:7;
1 John 3:4 and if we break anyone of them we stand guilty before God of sin according to
James 2:10-11. So your claim here is a mute point.
Now what is it in the scriptures provided here that you disagree with?
