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In Archbishop Dmitri's commentary on the Epistle of Saint James, he writes in his commentary on 1:13
Is the section in bold above the unambiguous Orthodox understanding of the "temptations" in the Gospels of Sts. Matthew, Mark, and Luke?
God incarnate, the Son of God, was not tempted (in His so-called temptations) in the sense that He was even for one instant attracted by the devil's propositions, nor could He be tricked into proving who He was.
Is the section in bold above the unambiguous Orthodox understanding of the "temptations" in the Gospels of Sts. Matthew, Mark, and Luke?