Annihilationism resources

trident343

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Looking to learn more about annihilationism (as in annihilation versus eternal torment)
I've been to tentmaker.org and alsp heard some of edward fudges expositions. I'm looking for an in-depth resource on the study of the biblical words such as "eternal" and "for ever and ever".
I am not conceding the possibility or even likeliness of an eternal hell, but I cannot ignore some good arguments suggesting the opposite. God promises the preservation of his word, yet there are many different bible versions, which seem to differ on core doctrines. I cannot rationally accept the KJV as the infallible version written by God as at least some errors are found, (some that do not even take a lot of knowledge to point out) and the biases of their traditional beliefs of the translators could explain some of the interpretation. I don't think its unreasonable to question and bring into the light authenticity of at least some of the scriptural interpretations.
 

trident343

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first, please point me out to any errors in the KJV thast supposadly it takes no knowledge to see, since I believe the KJV is infallible.

Second Annihilationism is a hell doctrine created by the devils

It might indeed be a doctrine created by devils, I'm not insisting it is true but I am questioning our interpretation. Therefore, I wish to look at this logically, if the interpretation holds up to the rules of Logic, then we can accept it and all go home.

As far as the KJV, maybe it is fallible, but the meanings of words have changed in our modern time. One verse come to my mind, both oddly having to do with hell.

Psalm written by david: 16:10
For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.

We all believe King David was saved and went to heaven, but as far as reading this using our modern use of grammar and interpretation, David was temporarily in hell.

The arguement has 2 premises
1) David was saved and went to heaven
2) the KJV verse says he would be in Hell, though temporarily.

Therefore: we can logically conclude that David first went to Hell, than God brought him to heaven

If we hold that all believers do not go to Hell before they go to heaven, than the verse is false. Here are some possible explanations, not logically derived from the argument but common exegesis.

1) Hell means some type of other temporary place ie. The grave or abraham's bossom
2) "Leave" means "send" You will not send me to Hell

Therfore our use of modern grammar is wrong or the words as we understand them are wrong.
 
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SwordoftheLord

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It might indeed be a doctrine created by devils, I'm not insisting it is true but I am questioning our interpretation. Therefore, I wish to look at this logically, if the interpretation holds up to the rules of Logic, then we can accept it and all go home.

As far as the KJV, maybe it is fallible, but the meanings of words have changed in our modern time. One verse come to my mind, both oddly having to do with hell.

Psalm written by david: 16:10
For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.

We all believe King David was saved and went to heaven, but as far as reading this using our modern use of grammar and interpretation, David was temporarily in hell.

The arguement has 2 premises
1) David was saved and went to heaven
2) the KJV verse says he would be in Hell, though temporarily.

Therefore: we can logically conclude that David first went to Hell, than God brought him to heaven

If we hold that all believers do not go to Hell before they go to heaven, than the verse is false. Here are some possible explanations, not logically derived from the argument but common exegesis.

1) Hell means some type of other temporary place ie. The grave or abraham's bossom
2) "Leave" means "send" You will not send me to Hell

Therfore our use of modern grammar is wrong or the words as we understand them are wrong.

Well, see your not studying this verse correctly because the two options you gave are both wrong, the correct answer is in the reading....

I will give ya another chance to see if you understand what David is saying here.

Another thing(that isnt a error in the KJV either) just you not being able to understand what is going on and what David is saying...I understand it easily.
 
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RevKidd

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O geez... this thread got derailed immediately..

O well... If you believe in the KJV only... then which edition are you referring to.. there were four of them...

The KJV is not the best translation nor is it infallible.. in 1640 the KJV was translated from manuscripts that were much younger than manuscripts found later. So what would you rather read... A tranlation based on manuscripts from 1000 AD or from 150 AD... the choice is obvious.

Someone get this back on track please.
 
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heritage36

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first, please point me out to any errors in the KJV thast supposadly it takes no knowledge to see, since I believe the KJV is infallible.

Second Annihilationism is a hell doctrine created by the devils

I love that its the same guy who says the KJV is infallible that says destruction is hell doctrine created by the devils, lol.

The last guy made some really good points about the KJV I like, and agree with. IT IS NOT INFALLIBLE, KING JAMES WAS NOT INSPIRED! Its not even a great translation in my opinion, but thats another topic for another time. The topic at hand...

I will say I wish you would not have used the title "annihilationism" because that is really a title that is used to put a negative sounding spin on those who don't believe in eternal torment. I generally say "destruction" myself, and I do believe in it, mainly because if you look into the words for "soul" which are naphesh in the OT Hebrew and "psuche" in the NT Greek, you can plainly see that the soul can die, and knowing that, obviously you can't survive eternal torment. Eternal torment is the exception really, as we only see it when talking about the anti-christ, satan, and the false prophet in revelation. What would be the point of resurrection if you are not dead at some point???

You asked for a good resource, and my personal favorite is seedandbread. Though it does not specifically teach just about destuction, it does feature studies on a multitude of topics and I some pertain to that topic.
Here is a link to the section with the free short Bible studies...
Seed and Bread TOC
 
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PROPHECYKID

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It might indeed be a doctrine created by devils, I'm not insisting it is true but I am questioning our interpretation. Therefore, I wish to look at this logically, if the interpretation holds up to the rules of Logic, then we can accept it and all go home.

Agreed!

As far as the KJV, maybe it is fallible, but the meanings of words have changed in our modern time. One verse come to my mind, both oddly having to do with hell.

Psalm written by david: 16:10
For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.

We all believe King David was saved and went to heaven, but as far as reading this using our modern use of grammar and interpretation, David was temporarily in hell.

Well I definitely do not believe that. If we understand the hebrew word for hell (sheol), it can mean grave or pit. David here was not speaking about himself but about Jesus Christ. Peter made reference to this text and this is what he said.

Act 2:29 Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day.
Act 2:30 Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne;
Act 2:31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption.

This is simply saying that his soul would not be left in the grave because the original greek and hebrew words translated hell also means the grave.

The arguement has 2 premises
1) David was saved and went to heaven
2) the KJV verse says he would be in Hell, though temporarily.

Therefore: we can logically conclude that David first went to Hell, than God brought him to heaven

David did not go anywhere but the grave. And as I have showed you before in Acts it was Jesus being referred to and his soul was not left in the grave. No one goes to heaven or hell immediately at death. In fact hell as we know it does not exist now.

If we hold that all believers do not go to Hell before they go to heaven, than the verse is false. Here are some possible explanations, not logically derived from the argument but common exegesis.

1) Hell means some type of other temporary place ie. The grave or abraham's bossom
2) "Leave" means "send" You will not send me to Hell

Therfore our use of modern grammar is wrong or the words as we understand them are wrong.

Our modern grammer can present problems and that is why it is best to find out the original hebrew and greek words used for soul, hell, and the like. I would agree with a temporary place being the grave but not Abraham's Bosom since that is not a real place.
 
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JudgeEden

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Great explanation my good friend PROPHECYKID!

It's funny that SwordoftheLord says it's a doctrine of demons, yet, he has an avatar promoting evolution. I could be wrong, but that's what it looks like.

As for the TC question, here's one place that helped me learn the truth.

CLICK ME!!!

Make sure you really search the site. There are a few articles as well as some videos.
 
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