I was talking to a hyper-fundamentalist friend of mine earlier today. He brought up the fact that Catholics view Mary as sinless. He was much indignant about this, so I offered to him the reasoning behind it.
The reason Catholics believe Jesus must be sinless is that she was ordained to bear God in her womb. How could the sinless Son of God be brought into the world by a sinful, tainted vessel? God is of purer eyes than to look upon sin - and yet to say that Mary was not sinless is to say that Perfection was conceived and borne in an imperfect vessel.
I concluded, to his consternation, that the reasoning behind this was the same and as sound as the reasoning behind the doctrine of the inerrancy of Scripture. The Fundamentalist is likely to assert that there can be no errors in Scripture, or else how could God be responsible for it? How could Perfect Truth co-exist (indeed, co-mingle) with the misconceptions in man's finite understanding?
For my own part, I affirm neither doctrine. My question is this: are Fundamentalists being consistent here?
The reason Catholics believe Jesus must be sinless is that she was ordained to bear God in her womb. How could the sinless Son of God be brought into the world by a sinful, tainted vessel? God is of purer eyes than to look upon sin - and yet to say that Mary was not sinless is to say that Perfection was conceived and borne in an imperfect vessel.
I concluded, to his consternation, that the reasoning behind this was the same and as sound as the reasoning behind the doctrine of the inerrancy of Scripture. The Fundamentalist is likely to assert that there can be no errors in Scripture, or else how could God be responsible for it? How could Perfect Truth co-exist (indeed, co-mingle) with the misconceptions in man's finite understanding?
For my own part, I affirm neither doctrine. My question is this: are Fundamentalists being consistent here?