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The distinction between ritual uncleanliness and sinfulness (and there is a HUGE distinction) is entirely off-topic.Maybe you did not see my post.
Was mary unclean according to Jewish law, after she gave birth?
Leviticus 12:1 The LORD spoke to Moses, saying, 2 Speak to the people of Israel, saying, If a woman conceives and bears a male child, then she shall be unclean seven days. As at the time of her menstruation, she shall be unclean.
"Previously charged" as in Romans 1:18 through Romans 2:11, where he speaks at length about the wicked. He immediately continues into Romans 3:10 "as it is written..." and then refers to the Psalms and Isaiah as I showed in the OP. You're yanking Romans 3:9 completely out of context."For we have previously charged both Jews and Greeks that they are all under sin." (Romans 3:9) -- Thus Paul isn't speaking only "to those who are evil, boastful, foolish, greedy, violent, and wicked" but really to all, as he says in Romans 3:9.
That's a poor rendering of the Hebrew, which actually is more like "before you no living being can be just". The connotation is different."For in Your sight no one living is righteous." (Psalms 143:2)
In the context of a prayer to God Solomon stated that there was no man who didn't sin, and at the time he was correct. But Mary didn't exist at the time. There's nothing there that remotely implies that for all time in the future there would never be a person who didn't sin."(for there is no one who does not sin)" (1 Kings 8:46)
Not even close.Case closed.*...
And "all" in Romans 3 is not about whether individuals have sinned but rather showing that one is not exempt because they are a Jew or a Gentile:"many" here is simply showing the contrast between the "one" man's disobedience. The logic is like this:
disobedience: one > many
obedience: one > many
This verse isn't about whether all have sinned or whether all are by nature sinful and unclean.
It's showing how a multiplicity of individuals inherited the sinfulness of one man, and how by the perfect obedience of one Man a multiplicity of individuals inherit his alien righteousness.
And does "no one" mean individuals?"(for there is no one who does not sin)" (1 Kings 8:46)
Quite clear to me.
That's a poor rendering of the Hebrew, which actually is more like "before you no living being can be just". The connotation is different.
And in any case, Mary didn't exist at the time the Psalm was written.
Hmm. Yeah, what about that?
Luke 2:22 And when the time came for their purification according to the Law of Moses, they brought him up to Jerusalem to present him to the Lord
Originally Posted by Frogster
Maybe you did not see my post.What about it? Unless one is trying to make the case that giving birth to Christ was a sin?
Was mary unclean according to Jewish law, after she gave birth?
Leviticus 12:1 The LORD spoke to Moses, saying, 2 Speak to the people of Israel, saying, If a woman conceives and bears a male child, then she shall be unclean seven days. As at the time of her menstruation, she shall be unclean.
The distinction between ritual uncleanliness and sinfulness (and there is a HUGE distinction) is entirely off-topic.
You're really trying to make the case that having a menstrual period or giving birth to a child equates to personal sin?If Mary was unclean, then she was also declared a sinner by the law.
Why just some law for Mary?
Please don't put her on the lelvel of the spotless lamb, who scripture indicates was sinless.
You're really trying to make the case that having a menstrual period or giving birth to a child equates to personal sin?
Catholics do not put Mary on the level of Christ. His sinlessness was soley His own doing; hers is dependent upon Him. Not the same level at all, and to knowingly make such a statement is perpetuating a falsehood.
Are you sure you want to go there? Because I believe Christ also became 'unclean' by Levitical law when he touched the leper, did he not?No, but if she was unclean by Levitical law, then she was a sinner by the same law. No?
Are you sure you want to go there? Because I believe Christ also became 'unclean' by Levitical law when he touched the leper, did he not?
I believe, as you said above, you can't have it both ways.Sure I will go there. He was sinless as the scripture states. How could mary be unclean under the law, but not found a sinner?
Jesus was Lord of the Sabbath, was Mary?
I believe, as you said above, you can't have it both ways.
If by giving birth to a child makes Mary unclean under the Levitical law, and by default being unclean under the Levitical law makes a person a sinner, then you've just proven Christ to be a sinner regardless of what the Scripture says. Or the second choice is true -- your logic is faulty.
(Hint, the answer is the second choice).
Of course Mary was not Lord of the Sabbath. What does that have to do with being sinless? Are we back to the erroneous idea that being sinless equates to divinity?
I believe, as you said above, you can't have it both ways.
If by giving birth to a child makes Mary unclean under the Levitical law, and by default being unclean under the Levitical law makes a person a sinner, then you've just proven Christ to be a sinner regardless of what the Scripture says. Or the second choice is true -- your logic is faulty.
(Hint, the answer is the second choice).
Of course Mary was not Lord of the Sabbath. What does that have to do with being sinless? Are we back to the erroneous idea that being sinless equates to divinity?
It's off topic because it has absolutely nothing to do with the passage in Romans which is the topic of the thread. If you want to deal with the topic, get on with it, but until then there's no reason for you to be here other than to hijack the thread.Ooooh..of it proves the point, it is off topic!...
Narnia, please, your points in rebuttal are excellent but responding to this line merely plays into the further hijacking of the thread. This is utterly off-topic.I believe, as you said above, you can't have it both ways.
If by giving birth to a child makes Mary unclean under the Levitical law, and by default being unclean under the Levitical law makes a person a sinner, then you've just proven Christ to be a sinner regardless of what the Scripture says. Or the second choice is true -- your logic is faulty.
(Hint, the answer is the second choice).
Of course Mary was not Lord of the Sabbath. What does that have to do with being sinless? Are we back to the erroneous idea that being sinless equates to divinity?
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