Sketcher

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1. No text says that about the weekly Sabbath of the 4th commandment.
2. This is a Bible detail admitted to by Bible scholarship on BOTH sides of the Sabbath debate - in almost all major Christian denominations.
What's your source for that claim of Christians who do not keep Sabbath agreeing that it's not really about the Sabbath, in spite of some of them actually including "Sabbath"?
 
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Clare73

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I think you just shot your own argument in the foot.

They say it was a sin to take God's name in vain - even in Eden.
Who is they?
Where is it found in Scripture?
You say that Paul is correct to say that before the Law was given by Moses at Sinai - sin was in the world according his statement in Romans 5 - "as if" this make the Bible scholarship on BOTH sides of the Sabbath topic in opposition to Paul - when in fact the way you just framed it supports them
Paul's point is the sin present in the world was not against the Mosaic Law, because there was no Mosaic Law at the time. The sin in the world was Adam's sin imputed to all men (Romans 5:16-18).
My point is there were no Ten Commandments in Eden.
Gen 26:5 "Abraham obeyed Me and fulfilled his duty to Me, and kept My commandments, My statutes, and My laws.”

Gal 3:8 "The GOSPEL was preached to Abraham"
Paul says it was not the Mosaic Law (Romans 5:12-14).
Those Bible scholars never argued that a lost person would gain heaven without the Gospel - if they could just manage not to murder. That is not even an argument that they make in the quote given for what they teach.
Agreed. . .Paul makes it clear that it is not possible (Galatians 3:10).
 
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Clare73

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Did I have another error in grammar you wish to correct?

I’m not going to take the bait, if you have something you wish to share just come out and say it.
You post more than just Scriptural texts.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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Sunday worship is attested in 1st or 2nd Century sources. The NT wasn't canonised until the 300s. So the Church, according to you was already in apostasy before it gave us the scriptures. So how can you trust the canon given to us by an apostasized Church?

It wasn't clear in the early Church whether or not to include the OT either, nor how much, so again that decision was made by the Church you say was in apostasy.

So did the Holy Spirit guide an apostate Church? It makes a whole lot more sense if you accept the Church that Christ instituted and preserved through the power of the Holy Spirit. If you say the Church fell into apostasy pretty much straight away then you are faced with the fact that your Bible is the product of an apostate Church, which then brings into question it's reliability.

If you accept the Church as Christ's Body on earth, and it's authority as being ordained by the Holy Spirit then there is no conflict, the Church has authority ordained by God to decide that Sunday worship is acceptable.
I think it’s a bit more complicated than how you present it. It took centuries for the Truth to come out for the scriptures. Initially the church persecuted Christians and only the “elect” were able to interpret scripture so it would fit the church traditions, in which they tweaked God’s Word, which we are warned against Proverbs 30:5,6. God did not work though The Church who was persecuting Christians, the Holy Spirit worked through individuals who was not willing to sacrifice God’s Word to please the Church false doctrine. God’s Church are the people who have faith in Him and keep God’s commandments Revelations 14:12 Which is why on the New Earth God’s Sabbath will continue as the day of worship and not the first day. Isaiah 66:23.
 
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HIM

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Your rewording what Jesus said.
No she wasn't. Maybe You just don't like Jesus words because they don't fit your theology?
Here is what the BDAG lexicon stated in regards to the Greek word κρέμαται translated hang in the KJV

fig. (Philo, Post. Cai. 24; 25; SibOr 7, 55) ἐν ταύταις τ. δυσὶν ἐντολαῖς ὅλος ὁ νόμος κρέμαται καὶ οἱ προφῆται all the law and the prophets hang (depend) on these two commandments Mt 22:40 (as a door hangs on its hinges, so the whole OT hangs on these two comm. For the thought cp. Plut., Mor. 116d.—On κ. ἐν cp. 2 Km 18:9; Billerb. I 775ff; 967f).—DELG. M-M. TW.

Which is why the the NET2 translated the verse the way they did.

(Matt 22:40 [NET2])
All the law and the prophets depend on these two commandments.”

And why the Douay Rheims, the English translation of the Latin translation of the Greek translated the text the way they did.

(Matt 22:40 [DRC])
On these two commandments dependeth the whole law and the prophets.
 
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Clare73

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No she wasn't. Maybe You just don't like Jesus words because they don't fit your theology?
Here is what the BDAG lexicon stated in regards to the Greek word κρέμαται translated hang in the KJV

fig. (Philo, Post. Cai. 24; 25; SibOr 7, 55) ἐν ταύταις τ. δυσὶν ἐντολαῖς ὅλος ὁ νόμος κρέμαται καὶ οἱ προφῆται all the law and the prophets hang (depend) on these two commandments Mt 22:40 (as a door hangs on its hinges, so the whole OT hangs on these two comm. For the thought cp. Plut., Mor. 116d.—On κ. ἐν cp. 2 Km 18:9; Billerb. I 775ff; 967f).—DELG. M-M. TW.

Which is why the the NET2 translated the verse the way they did.

(Matt 22:40 [NET2])
All the law and the prophets depend on these two commandments.”

And why the Douay Rheims, the English translation of the Latin translation of the Greek translated the text the way they did.

(Matt 22:40 [DRC])
On these two commandments dependeth the whole law and the prophets.
You must have me confused with someone else.
 
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HIM

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You must have me confused with someone else.
Nope follow the replies.
The Ten Commandments hang from these two commands. They are inseparable. Love to God makes keeping the first four commandments (which concern God) a pleasure, and love toward our neighbor makes keeping the last six (which concern our neighbor) a joy. Love fulfills the law by taking away the drudgery of mere obedience and by making law-keeping a delight (Psalm 40:8). When we truly love a person, honoring his or her requests becomes a joy. Jesus said, “If you love Me, keep My commandments” (John 14:15). It is impossible to love the Lord and not keep His commandments, because the Bible says, “This is the love of God, that we keep His commandments. And His commandments are not burdensome” (1 John 5:3). “He who says, ‘I know Him,’ and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him” (1 John 2:4).

Your rewording what Jesus said.

No she wasn't. Maybe You just don't like Jesus words because they don't fit your theology?
Here is what the BDAG lexicon stated in regards to the Greek word κρέμαται translated hang in the KJV

fig. (Philo, Post. Cai. 24; 25; SibOr 7, 55) ἐν ταύταις τ. δυσὶν ἐντολαῖς ὅλος ὁ νόμος κρέμαται καὶ οἱ προφῆται all the law and the prophets hang (depend) on these two commandments Mt 22:40 (as a door hangs on its hinges, so the whole OT hangs on these two comm. For the thought cp. Plut., Mor. 116d.—On κ. ἐν cp. 2 Km 18:9; Billerb. I 775ff; 967f).—DELG. M-M. TW.

Which is why the the NET2 translated the verse the way they did.

(Matt 22:40 [NET2])
All the law and the prophets depend on these two commandments.”

And why the Douay Rheims, the English translation of the Latin translation of the Greek translated the text the way they did.

(Matt 22:40 [DRC])
On these two commandments dependeth the whole law and the prophets.
 
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HIM

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The word "hang" to which you responded was not in the post to which I was responding.

You must have me confused with someone else.
Follow all the post in which was in the post you just responded and you will see it was.

Anyway we are done.
Take care.
 
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BobRyan

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I have a really easy solution for you - take a look at where BOTH sides agree.

Baptist Confession of Faith - sectn 19.
Westminster Confession of Faith - sectn 19
D.L. Moody on the 4th commandment.
Dies Domini (Pope John Paul II)
R.C Sproul
C.H. Spurgeon
etc.

ALL of them agree with the SDA church and other Sabbath keeping groups -- on these key points.

1. All TEN of the TEN commandments were given as the moral law of God in Eden - to mankind
2. All TEN of the TEN Commandments are included in the Law of God that is written on the heart under the new Covenant.
3. The Sabbath commandment as given by God in scripture - points to Saturday - not Sunday.
4. The TEN Commandments are not in opposition to grace or the Gospel
5. all of mankind are still to this very day held to accountability by the TEN
6. The TEN are not - "just for Jews".

When scholarship on BOTH sides look at the Bible and AGREE on these key details then it is a pretty good option .. take this as the starting point and then work through the differences that remain.


So here is a great example of Bible details so obvious that both sides agree - from the Westminster Confession of Faith sectn 19.


Westminster Confession of Faith -

Chapter XIX

Of the Law of God

I. God gave to Adam a law, as a covenant of works, by which He bound him and all his posterity, to personal, entire, exact, and perpetual obedience, promised life upon the fulfilling, and threatened death upon the breach of it, and endued him with power and ability to keep it.[1]

II. This law, after his fall, continued to be a perfect rule of righteousness; and, as such, was delivered by God upon Mount Sinai, in Ten Commandments, and written in two tables:[2] the first four commandments containing our duty towards God; and the other six, our duty to man.[3]

III. Besides this law, commonly called moral, God was pleased to give to the people of Israel, as a church under age, ceremonial laws, containing several typical ordinances, partly of worship, prefiguring Christ, His graces, actions, sufferings, and benefits;[4] and partly, holding forth divers instructions of moral duties.[5] All which ceremonial laws are now abrogated, under the New Testament.[6]

IV. To them also, as a body politic, He gave sundry judicial laws, which expired together with the State of that people; not obliging under any now, further than the general equity thereof may require.[7]

V. The moral law does forever bind all, as well justified persons as others, to the obedience thereof;[8] and that, not only in regard of the matter contained in it, but also in respect of the authority of God the Creator, who gave it.[9] Neither does Christ, in the Gospel, any way dissolve, but much strengthen this obligation.[10]

VI. Although true believers be not under the law, as a covenant of works, to be thereby justified, or condemned;[11] yet is it of great use to them, as well as to others; in that, as a rule of life informing them of the will of God, and their duty, it directs and binds them to walk accordingly;[12] discovering also the sinful pollutions of their nature, hearts and lives;[13] so as, examining themselves thereby, they may come to further conviction of, humiliation for, and hatred against sin,[14] together with a clearer sight of the need they have of Christ, and the perfection of His obedience.[15] It is likewise of use to the regenerate, to restrain their corruptions, in that it forbids sin:[16] and the threatenings of it serve to show what even their sins deserve; and what afflictions, in this life, they may expect for them, although freed from the curse thereof threatened in the law.[17] The promises of it, in like manner, show them God's approbation of obedience,and what blessings they may expect upon the performance thereof:[18] although not as due to them by the law as a covenant of works.[19] So as, a man's doing good, and refraining from evil, because the law encourages to the one and deters from the other, is no evidence of his being under the law: and not under grace.[20]

VII. Neither are the forementioned uses of the law contrary to the grace of the Gospel, but do sweetly comply with it;[21] the Spirit of Christ subduing and enabling the will of man to do that freely, and cheerfully, which the will of God, revealed in the law, requires to be done.[22]

agrees with Baptist Confession of Faith -- as formatted by C.H.Spurgeon
The Law of God - Baptist Confession of Faith: Section 19






Then they disagree with Paul in Romans 5:12-14, where he states "before the law was given, sin was in the world;" i.e., the guilt of Adam's sin, by which we are all condemned (Romans 5:16-18).
The law wasn't given by Moses until 2,400 years after Adam.

I think you just shot your own argument in the foot.

They say it was a sin to take God's name in vain - even in Eden.

You say that Paul is correct to say that before the Law was given by Moses at Sinai - sin was in the world according his statement in Romans 5 - "as if" this make the Bible scholarship on BOTH sides of the Sabbath topic in opposition to Paul - when in fact the way you just framed it supports them.

Gen 26:5 "Abraham obeyed Me and fulfilled his duty to Me, and kept My commandments, My statutes, and My laws.”

Gal 3:8 "The GOSPEL was preached to Abraham"

Who is they?
Where is it found in Scripture?

The moral law of God defines what sin is Rom 3:19-20, 1 John 3:4 and always has.

And a tiny example of the "They" as noted above ...

The Baptist Confession of Faith,
the Westminster Confession of Faith ,
D.L. Moody,
R.C Sproul,
Matthew Henry,
Thomas Watson
Eastern Orthodox Catechism
The Catholic Catechism

Paul's point is the sin present in the world was not against the Mosaic Law, because there was no Mosaic Law at the time.

Paul never uses the term "Mosaic Law" rather "Commandments of God".

1 Cor 7:19 "what matters is keeping the Commandments of God"

Where in that singular unit of ten "Honor your father and mother" is what Paul calls "the first commandment with a promise" Eph 6:1-2


Gen 26:5 "Abraham obeyed Me and fulfilled his duty to Me, and kept My commandments, My statutes, and My laws.”


Gal 3:8 "The GOSPEL was preached to Abraham"


So then God's word points to the Sabbath in Eden

Ex 20:11 11 For in six days the Lord made the heavens and the earth, the sea and everything that is in them, and He rested on the seventh day; for that reason the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and made it holy.


Gen 2:1-3
And so the heavens and the earth were completed, and all their heavenly lights. 2 By the seventh day God completed His work which He had done, and He rested on the seventh day from all His work which He had done. 3 Then God blessed the seventh day and sanctified it, because on it He rested from all His work which God had created and made.
 
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BobRyan

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What's your source for that claim of Christians who do not keep Sabbath agreeing that it's not really about the Sabbath, in spite of some of them actually including "Sabbath"?

There are multiple Sabbaths in Lev 23 - the annual Sabbaths are shadows that point to the sacrifice of Christ as Col 2 mentions and as they admit.

So then they speak of the "TEN Commandments" in the moral law of God written on the heart - (not "just nine") and written in the New Covenant known to Jeremiah and his readers -- Jer 31:31-34 - as they all agree.
 
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BobRyan

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BobRyan said:
Is 56:6-8 Gentiles specifically singled out for Sabbath keeping.
Also the foreigners who join themselves to the Lord,
To attend to His service and to love the name of the Lord,
To be His servants, every one who keeps the Sabbath so as not to profane it,
And holds firmly to My covenant;

It's better to quote the whole sentence than just half of it, especially with point you're trying to make:

"And the foreigners who join themselves to the LORD, to minister to him, to love the name of the LORD, and to be his servants, everyone who keeps the Sabbath and does not profane it, and holds fast my covenant-- these I will bring to my holy mountain, and make them joyful in my house of prayer; their burnt offerings and their sacrifices will be accepted on my altar; for my house shall be called a house of prayer for all peoples." - Isaiah 56:6-7​

Indeed in the OT animal sacrifices were part of the liturgy for worship of the one true God. The animal sacrifces pointed to Christ - a the hope of the sinner for forgiveness of sins.

By contrast your statement was that the Sabbath was not applicable to gentiles.

As we see in the text above - gentiles were specifically singled out for Sabbath keeping.

The point remains.


I

"and holds fast my covenant" - we have to ask which covenant. There was the Old Covenant, in which Gentiles could convert to being Jews

1. There is no such thing as "Old Covenant" in the OT text.
2. There was no command for gentiles to become Jews in order to worship God.

Rather "my house shall be called a house of prayer for ALL NATIONS" - Is 56.

No wonder it is the gentiles in Acts 13 - asking for more Gospel preaching "the next Sabbath"
 
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Sketcher

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There are multiple Sabbaths in Lev 23 - the annual Sabbaths are shadows that point to the sacrifice of Christ as Col 2 mentions and as they admit.

So then they speak of the "TEN Commandments" in the moral law of God written on the heart - (not "just nine") and written in the New Covenant known to Jeremiah and his readers -- Jer 31:31-34 - as they all agree.
Again, better to quote the verses.

31 "Behold, the days are coming, declares the LORD, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah,
32 not like the covenant that I made with their fathers on the day when I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, my covenant that they broke, though I was their husband, declares the LORD.
33 But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, declares the LORD: I will put my law within them, and I will write it on their hearts. And I will be their God, and they shall be my people.
34 And no longer shall each one teach his neighbor and each his brother, saying, 'Know the LORD,'for they shall all know me, from the least of them to the greatest, declares the LORD. For I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more."​

Nothing about Sabbath in there. Your use of this verse depends upon the Sabbath command being included, but it's not explicitly included. We have "I will put my law within them" but you're presuming it's the law the SDAs say - not the law the Jews say, or the Christ's law which the NT teaches.

And while I am well aware that there are Sabbath years in the OT, you have not provided evidence that Col 2:16-17 applies only to the Sabbath years and not also to the Sabbath days. Reviewing the verses:

16 Therefore let no one pass judgment on you in questions of food and drink, or with regard to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath.
17 These are a shadow of the things to come, but the substance belongs to Christ.
That's the ESV which seems to make no explicit distinction between the years and the days, the NASB and the KJV render it as Sabbath day/days specifically:

KJV:

16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:
17 Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.​

NASB:

16 Therefore no one is to act as your judge in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath day-
17 things which are a mere shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ.​

So, for your claim to stand that Christians who do not keep Sabbath claim that these verses do not refer to Sabbath days, I would need evidence of that - and specifically, why they know the Greek better than the NASB and KJV translators. Where is that evidence?
 
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Freth

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Again, better to quote the verses.

31 "Behold, the days are coming, declares the LORD, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah,
32 not like the covenant that I made with their fathers on the day when I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, my covenant that they broke, though I was their husband, declares the LORD.
33 But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, declares the LORD: I will put my law within them, and I will write it on their hearts. And I will be their God, and they shall be my people.
34 And no longer shall each one teach his neighbor and each his brother, saying, 'Know the LORD,'for they shall all know me, from the least of them to the greatest, declares the LORD. For I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more."​

Nothing about Sabbath in there. Your use of this verse depends upon the Sabbath command being included, but it's not explicitly included. We have "I will put my law within them" but you're presuming it's the law the SDAs say - not the law the Jews say, or the Christ's law which the NT teaches.

And while I am well aware that there are Sabbath years in the OT, you have not provided evidence that Col 2:16-17 applies only to the Sabbath years and not also to the Sabbath days. Reviewing the verses:

16 Therefore let no one pass judgment on you in questions of food and drink, or with regard to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath.
17 These are a shadow of the things to come, but the substance belongs to Christ.
That's the ESV which seems to make no explicit distinction between the years and the days, the NASB and the KJV render it as Sabbath day/days specifically:

KJV:

16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:
17 Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.​

NASB:

16 Therefore no one is to act as your judge in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath day-
17 things which are a mere shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ.​

So, for your claim to stand that Christians who do not keep Sabbath claim that these verses do not refer to Sabbath days, I would need evidence of that - and specifically, why they know the Greek better than the NASB and KJV translators. Where is that evidence?

Here are some commentaries on the subject:

Matthew Henry's Commentary, "Those who thought themselves still under some kind of obligation by the ceremonial law esteemed one day above another; kept up a respect to the times of the passover, pentecost, new moons and feast of the tabernacles. Those who knew all of these things were abolished by Christ's coming esteemed every day alike. We must understand it with an exception of the Lord's day, which all Christians unanimously observed. The apostle seems willing to let the ceremonial law wither by degrees, and let it have an honorable burial."

John Wesley, "One day above another - As new moons, and other Jewish festivals. Let every man be fully persuaded - That a thing is lawful, before he does it."

Albert Barnes, "And if any man is disposed to plead this passage as an excuse for violating the Sabbath, and devoting it to pleasure or gain, let him quote it “just as it is,” that is, let “him neglect the Sabbath from a conscientious desire to honor Jesus Christ.” Unless this is his motive, the passage cannot avail him. But this motive never yet influenced a Sabbath-breaker."

David Brown, "...If the Lawgiver Himself said of it when on earth, "The Son of man is LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY" (see Mar 2:28 ) --it will be hard to show that the apostle must have meant it to be ranked by his readers among those vanished Jewish festival days, which only "weakness" could imagine to be still in force--a weakness which those who had more light ought, out of love, merely to bear with."​
 
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BobRyan said:
Is 56:6-8 Gentiles specifically singled out for Sabbath keeping.
Also the foreigners who join themselves to the Lord,
To attend to His service and to love the name of the Lord,
To be His servants, every one who keeps the Sabbath so as not to profane it,
And holds firmly to My covenant;



Indeed in the OT animal sacrifices were part of the liturgy for worship of the one true God. The animal sacrifces pointed to Christ - a the hope of the sinner for forgiveness of sins.

By contrast your statement was that the Sabbath was not applicable to gentiles.

As we see in the text above - gentiles were specifically singled out for Sabbath keeping.

The point remains.




1. There is no such thing as "Old Covenant" in the OT text.
2. There was no command for gentiles to become Jews in order to worship God.
If you're going to claim that there is no such thing as "old covenant" in the OT text, then you have to acknowledge that this passage isn't telling us the requirements Christians need to live by in the New Covenant, which the NT describes. And while Gentiles did not need to become Jews in order to worship God in the OT days, they didn't have the covenant, and this passage talks about holding to God's covenant. Full conversion would have been needed for that.

Rather "my house shall be called a house of prayer for ALL NATIONS" - Is 56.
Which Jesus acknowledged as he drove the money-changers from the Temple - but they were in the court of Gentiles, the Jews had another court further in, closer to the Holy of Holies.

No wonder it is the gentiles in Acts 13 - asking for more Gospel preaching "the next Sabbath"
Hearing the word preached on Sabbath is a far cry from Sabbath observance.
 
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BobRyan

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In response to the claim that the OT only has Jews in scope for the application of the Sabbath commandment we find this:

BobRyan said:
"The Sabbath was made FOR Mankind" Mark 2:27

. . . but not mankind for the Sabbath.

Either way -- gentiles are included in the term "mankind". And Mark 2:27 speaks of the making of BOTH -- mankind AND the Sabbath which we see in Gen 1:2-2:3



And if we examine the passage, it shows that it isn't right to teach that every man must follow the Sabbath

That is a case of "you quoting you"

23 One Sabbath he was going through the grainfields, and as they made their way, his disciples began to pluck heads of grain.
24 And the Pharisees were saying to him, "Look, why are they doing what is not lawful on the Sabbath?"
25 And he said to them, "Have you never read what David did, when he was in need and was hungry, he and those who were with him:
26 how he entered the house of God, in the time of Abiathar the high priest, and ate the bread of the Presence, which it is not lawful for any but the priests to eat, and also gave it to those who were with him?"
27 And he said to them, "The Sabbath was made for mankind, not mankind made for the Sabbath.
28 So the Son of Man is lord even of the Sabbath." (The Lord's day)
Speaks to the "making of both" and Jesus is there rejecting the false accusers and showing the context for right application of the Sabbath. This is not the pre-cross condemnation of the Law of God by Christ nor is it a case of Christ agreeing with His false accusers.
 
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BobRyan

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BobRyan said:
"The saints "KEEP the Commandments of God AND their faith in Jesus" Rev 14:12

Where those commandments include the distinct "unit of TEN" having "Honor your Father and mother" as the "First commandment with a promise" according to Paul Eph 6:1-2 and still applicable to mankind.

Just as "do not take God's name in vain" in still applicable to mankind
For "sin IS transgression of the Law" 1 John 3:4

Bible details so obvious that even the non-SDA, non-Sabbath-keeping Bible scholarship in almost all major Christian denominations admit.

We most certainly do, but nothing in that verse suggests an SDA interpretation of Sabbath.

Bible scholarship in almost all major Christian denominations freely admit that the Sabbath commandment a included in "the TEN" and that it was Saturday as God gave it in scripture. They also admit that all TEN apply to mankind.

This is irrefutable. No "SDA interpretation" argument survives that detail.


Westminster Confession of Faith -

Chapter XIX

Of the Law of God

I. God gave to Adam a law, as a covenant of works, by which He bound him and all his posterity, to personal, entire, exact, and perpetual obedience, promised life upon the fulfilling, and threatened death upon the breach of it, and endued him with power and ability to keep it.[1]

II. This law, after his fall, continued to be a perfect rule of righteousness; and, as such, was delivered by God upon Mount Sinai, in Ten Commandments, and written in two tables:[2] the first four commandments containing our duty towards God; and the other six, our duty to man.[3]

III. Besides this law, commonly called moral, God was pleased to give to the people of Israel, as a church under age, ceremonial laws, containing several typical ordinances, partly of worship, prefiguring Christ, His graces, actions, sufferings, and benefits;[4] and partly, holding forth divers instructions of moral duties.[5] All which ceremonial laws are now abrogated, under the New Testament.[6]

IV. To them also, as a body politic, He gave sundry judicial laws, which expired together with the State of that people; not obliging under any now, further than the general equity thereof may require.[7]

V. The moral law does forever bind all, as well justified persons as others, to the obedience thereof;[8] and that, not only in regard of the matter contained in it, but also in respect of the authority of God the Creator, who gave it.[9] Neither does Christ, in the Gospel, any way dissolve, but much strengthen this obligation.[10]

VI. Although true believers be not under the law, as a covenant of works, to be thereby justified, or condemned;[11] yet is it of great use to them, as well as to others; in that, as a rule of life informing them of the will of God, and their duty, it directs and binds them to walk accordingly;[12] discovering also the sinful pollutions of their nature, hearts and lives;[13] so as, examining themselves thereby, they may come to further conviction of, humiliation for, and hatred against sin,[14] together with a clearer sight of the need they have of Christ, and the perfection of His obedience.[15] It is likewise of use to the regenerate, to restrain their corruptions, in that it forbids sin:[16] and the threatenings of it serve to show what even their sins deserve; and what afflictions, in this life, they may expect for them, although freed from the curse thereof threatened in the law.[17] The promises of it, in like manner, show them God's approbation of obedience,and what blessings they may expect upon the performance thereof:[18] although not as due to them by the law as a covenant of works.[19] So as, a man's doing good, and refraining from evil, because the law encourages to the one and deters from the other, is no evidence of his being under the law: and not under grace.[20]

VII. Neither are the forementioned uses of the law contrary to the grace of the Gospel, but do sweetly comply with it;[21] the Spirit of Christ subduing and enabling the will of man to do that freely, and cheerfully, which the will of God, revealed in the law, requires to be done.[22]
 
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BobRyan

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If you're going to claim that there is no such thing as "old covenant" in the OT text, then you have to acknowledge that this passage isn't telling us the requirements Christians need to live by in the New Covenant, which the NT describes.

The NEW Covenant is in the OT

Jer 31:31-34
31 “Behold, days are coming,” declares the Lord, “when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah, 32 not like the covenant which I made with their fathers on the day I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, although I was a husband to them,” declares the Lord. 33 “For this is the covenant which I will make with the house of Israel after those days,” declares the Lord: “I will put My law within them and write it on their heart; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people. 34 They will not teach again, each one his neighbor and each one his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord,’ for they will all know Me, from the least of them to the greatest of them,” declares the Lord, “for I will forgive their wrongdoing, and their sin I will no longer remember.”

Exegesis informs us that the Law of God known to Jeremiah and his readers included the moral law of God - the TEN written on stone at Sinai.


And is verbatim - "unchanged" in the NT -- Heb 8:6-12

And while Gentiles did not need to become Jews in order to worship God in the OT days, they didn't have the covenant,

They did not have the nation-covenant -- they were members of other nations. But they had the New Covenant "one Gospel" Gal 1:6-9 by which Enoch is taken to heaven without seeing death (Heb 1)
 
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BobRyan

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BobRyan said:
No wonder it is the gentiles in Acts 13 - asking for more Gospel preaching "the next Sabbath"

Hearing the word preached on Sabbath is a far cry from Sabbath observance.

1. They did not ask for "more gospel preaching TOMORROW on week-day-1" they asked for more Gospel preaching "next Sabbath"
2. Acts 18:4 "EVERY Sabbath" Gospel preaching to gentiles and Jews.
3. Gentiles specifically singled out for Sabbath keeping in Is 56:6-8
4. Lev 23:3 - the weekly Sabbath is a "day of holy convocation" they were in "holy convocation" ... the Sabbath commandment calls for rest and fellowship with God - as does Lev 23:3.
 
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