- Mar 5, 2004
- 17,332
- 6,439
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- US-Democrat
I've already posted cites for two law review articles discussing it. The standard definition is "a person laboring against that person's will to benefit another under some form of coercion." Every definition I've seen exempts paid salary as coercion. I have never heard all pregnancies as such, nor would a wanted pregnancy meet that definition. Now, please, answer my question. Or do you not have an answer?Define involuntary servitude. I ask because some define all pregnancies as such.
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