'Abomination' & 'Fornication' their meaning

Cuddles333

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Not so sure I would say "always." Certainly inappropriate contentia was used that way in common Greek culture; but not so much in the Greek-speaking diaspora Jewish communities that comprised a major component of the leadership of each of the Greek speaking congregations.

inappropriate contentia was used there to denote anything that violated the Torah's (5 books of Moses) sexual mores and ethics.

The King James (mistakenly?) translated 2 Hebrew words in the Old Testament as fornication. The first word is taznuwth and it means- idolatry, whoredom. It is found in Ezekiel 16:15
The second word mistranslated as fornication is zanah and it means- adultery, idolatry, to go whoring. It is found in 2 Chron. 21:11, Isaiah 23:17, Ezekiel 16:26,29

If we check these passages out in more modern translations as the NIV we find that they are referring to what occurred in pagan idol worship.


Deut. 24:1 gave an Israelite man reason to divorce his wife if her naked appearance was unpleasant to him. The word mistranslated for uncleanliness is ervah and this word means- blemish, nudity. It could mean that one breast or aureola was larger or shaped different from the other or the nipples stuck out too far, or she had a birth mark or some skin disease or whatever physical oddity that was covered by clothing during the day. It definitely did not mean FORNICATION because that was not grounds for divorce......but for stoning.
 
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Dave-W

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. The word mistranslated for uncleanliness is ervah and this word means- blemish, nudity.
I do not think so.

In the first century BC noted rabbis Shammai and Hillel (grandfather of Gamaliel - Paul's teacher) disagreed on the meaning of ervah. Shammai defined it very narrowly (not being a virgin on the wedding night) whereas Hillel had a much broader definition.

The fact is 2000 years ago 2 native Hebrew speakers, OT scholars, could not agree on the definition. How do we think we can?
 
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