David Brider
Well-Known Member
- Aug 18, 2004
- 6,513
- 700
- Country
- United Kingdom
- Faith
- Methodist
- Marital Status
- Married
- Politics
- UK-Greens
Dear EnemypartyII
I have looked t up, someone who sleeps with someone of the opposite sex is heterosexual. A bisexual sleeps with both, David only slept with a woman so he was heterosexual.
No, a heterosexual is someone who is likely to be attracted to people of the opposite sex as him or herself; a homosexual is someone who is likely to be attracted to people of the same sex as him or herself; and a bisexual is someone who is likely to be attracted to people of either sex.
None of those are intrinsically to do with sexual activity, although they can certainly lead to it. For example, I'm bisexual, but I'm engaged to be married and have every intention of being faithful to my future wife until the day I die, so I'm not likely to sleep with someone of the same sex as myself. But that doesn't make me any less bisexual.
In the case of David, yes, the only record we have of him engaging in any sexual activity was with women - but that doesn't rule him out from ever having had attractions to other men.
Phinehas2 said:EnemyPartyII said:One doesn't even have to have sex to be in a homosexual relationship
Phinehas2 said:
Yes one does according to the dictionary definition and what do you think the sex in homosexual means.
I don't know what dictionary definition you're relying on, but I wouldn't trust it as far as I could throw it. Of course one doesn't have to have sex to be in a homosexual relationship, any more than one has to have sex to be in a heterosexual relationship. My relationship with my fiancée is 100% chaste at the moment, because we've decided not to engage in sexual intimacy until we get married. That doesn't make it any less of a heterosexual relationship - and yes, it's one that will one day be consummated, but not for another 18 months or so. David's relationship with Jonathan could have been of a similar kind.
David.
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