David Brider
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- Aug 18, 2004
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Dear David Brider,
Sorry but I have already given chapter reference after chapter reference...
Actually, for this you've given no chapter reference. All you've said is:
Phinehas2 said:Jesus says of OT scriptures have you not read what God said and then quoted the OT scriptures, how can the words not be Gods word?
As I've said, the only instance I can find of Jesus saying those words to the Pharisees is in Matthew 22, verse 31 IIRC. And yet you steadfastly insist that that's not the verse you're referring to. Well, if it isn't, then what is the verse you're referring to?
Phinehas2 said:But here is a question for you, if Jesus who is God speaks the words of God how can it not be the word of God? If you say the words of God are not the word of God, whose words are they?
I've already explained the difference between someone's words and someone's word. It's not just a matter of the difference between plural and singular, it's a very important difference of meaning.
I've also explained that the usage of the phrase "the Word of God" in Scripture doesn't accord with your usage of the phrase.
David.
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