Bara means out of nothing, this is clear from how it is used in the original,
Unfortunately you have not been able to show from its use in scriptures that
bara means out of nothing. In fact it is quite clear from scripture that
bara is most often used where the creation was from pre existing materials, even when God used natural processes to bring his creation into being, like when he flowers to bloom in the spring time or created you and me.
bara can be used for creation that is out of nothing, as it it in a couple of verses describing God crating the heavens and the earth. So if
bara can be used for creation from nothing, though more often for creation from exiting material, if it can be used to describe creation through natural processes as well as supernatural wonders, then I would say the one common feature that all the uses of
bara have in common is the proclamation that it is God who made each created thing, according to his plan an purpose, that each creation is the handiwork of God.
bara declares each creation made by God, without looking at what it is made from or what processes God used.
bara is about God creating and what God created, not how he created it.
arguments to the contrary are nonexistent.
Instead of denying that there are arguments to the contrary, why not show me some actual arguments
for your claim?
Vine's dictionary is one example among many
Not interested in how many examples you can find, I am interested in whether they have any decent arguments to support the claim.
and the doctrinal issue at stake is really our lineage and the consequences of original sin.
Um no. No doctrinal issues are at stake, the bible clearly teaches ex nihilo creation by proclaiming God as the creator of everything. Original sin is about the effects of Adam's actions after he was created and your interpretation of the Greek in Roman's 5. The creationist understanding of our lineage depend on Adam being literally formed from dust rather than God using natural processes. Neither are ex nihilo creation. Special creation from dust is still creation from pre existing material.
However if you want to change the subject to topics that are specific to this subforum, I won't follow.
The original creation of both the universe and the world is a given in Holy Scripture, unless you simply don't believe the clear meaning of the text.
I thought it was the clear meaning of
bara we were discussing. Tell me, do you think Gen 1:1 means the original creation of the universe because
bara means ex nihilo, or do you think
bara means ex nihilo because Gen 1:1 describes the original creation of the universe? Because it sounds to me like a there is a circular argument here. Ex nihilo creation is there in Gen 1:1 because the verse declares God as the creator of everything that exists from the very beginning, not because you read ex nihilo creation into the meaning of
bara when that is clearly not how the bible uses the word in any other context.
Adam for instance was our first parent, there is no real question about this from Christian and Jewish sources. Jewish scholarship still maintains the clear meaning of the Genesis account as did Paul:
The first couple, progenitors of mankind, whose creation is initially described in Genesis 1:26-30, which relates that God created man---both male and female ---in His own image and likeness, endowing mankind with fertility and the power to dominate all other living creatures. Chapters 2-3 of Genesis give a more detailed account of man's creation. Encyclopedia of Judaism:Adam and Eve
The Roman Catholic Church:
Here evidently the adam or man of the Creation narrative is identified with a particular individual, and consequently the plural forms which might otherwise cause doubt are to be understood with reference to the first pair of human beings.
The first man and the father of the human race.
But I have no support for what I'm saying even though the Christian scholarship as well as Jewish understanding of the clear meaning that Adam and Eve were our first parents.
Justification by the righteousness and obedience of Christ, is a doctrine that the Scripture teaches in very full terms, Rom. 5:18, 19, By the righteousness of one, the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life. For as by one mans disobedience many were made sinners, so, by the obedience of one, shall all be made righteous. Here in one verse we are told that we have justification by Christs righteousness, and that there might be no room to understand the righteousness spoken of, merely of Christs atonement by his suffering the penalty. In the next verse it is put in other terms, and asserted that it is by Christs obedience we are made righteous. (Justification by Faith Alone by Jonathan Edwards. 1703-1758)
I don't know how much you know about the Bloodless Revolution but John Wesley was one of the key people involved. Credited with being the founder of the Methodist church and leading preachers that sparked the Great Awakening that swept Western Europe and the Colonies of North America in the late 1700s.
For all have sinned - In Adam, and in their own persons; by a sinful nature, sinful tempers, and sinful actions. And are fallen short of the glory of God - The supreme end of man; short of his image on earth, and the enjoyment of him in heaven. (John Wesley's Notes)
Here's someone else who represents the traditional and Biblical view of the Christian church from the same time frame:
[quoted twice, doesn't fit word limit]
(Justification by Faith Alone by Jonathan Edwards. 1703-1758)
Notice he inextricably links original sin to justification by faith. If you know anything about Protestant Theology you have to realize that at the heart of Protestant theology is justification by faith alone. Here's another one you will probably ignore:
Sin originated with Satan Isaiah 14:12-14, entered the world through Adam Romans 5:12, was, and is, universal, Christ alone excepted ; Romans 3:23; 1 Peter 2:22, incurs the penalties of spiritual and physical death ; Genesis 2:17; 3:19; Ezekiel 18:4,20; Romans 6:23 and has no remedy but in the sacrificial death of Christ ; Hebrews 9:26; Acts 4:12 availed of by faith Acts 13:38,39. Sin may be summarized as threefold: An act, the violation of, or want of obedience to the revealed will of God; a state, absence of righteousness; a nature, enmity toward God. (Scofield Commentary)
And of course the context of Romans itself:
The book of Romans tells us that God's invisible attributes and eternal nature have been clearly seen but we exchanged the truth of God for a lie (Rom 1:21,22). As a result the Law of Moses and the law of our own conscience bears witness against us, sometimes accusing, sometimes defending (Rom 2:15). We all sinned but now the righteousness of God has been revealed to be by faith through Christ (Rom 3:21). Abraham became the father of many nations by faith and the supernatural work of God (Rom 4:17). Through one man sin entered the world and through one man righteousness was revealed (Rom 5:12) or as shernen said it, Adams dragging everyone down into sin. It looks something like this:
1) Exchanging the truth of God for a lie, the creature for the Creator.
2) Both the Law and our conscience make our sin evident and obvious.
3) All sinned, but now the righteousness of God is revealed in Christ.
4) Abraham's lineage produced by a promise and a miracle through faith.
5) Through one man sin entered the world and death through sin.
6) Just as Christ was raised from the dead we walk in newness of life.
7) The law could not save but instead empowered sin to convict.
8) Freed from the law of sin and death (Adamic nature) we're saved.
The Scriptures offer an explanation for man's fallen nature, how we inherited it exactly is not important but when Adam and Eve sinned we did not fast. This is affirmed in the New Testament in no uncertain terms by Luke in his genealogy, in Paul's exposition of the Gospel in Romans and even Jesus called the marriage of Adam and Eve 'the beginning'.
Ok so we have the Vine's Dictionary and various other sources indicating exactly what I have been telling you and you coming back with the fallacious chant that sound exegesis of the text supports your assertions. It's not true but lets move on.
Again nothing to do with ex nihilo creation. You would need to show that Wesley or Scofield or the Catholic Church thought creating Adam from dust was the same as creating him from nothing. Personally I think Wesley would have pretty surprised at the idea creating Adam from dust was ex nihilo, but he was pretty gracious and I am sure he would have just explained basic Latin to you, he would have been puzzled though, when he realised you know ex nihilo means 'from nothing'.
Otherwise you are avoiding the question of the meaning of
bara and going into areas I won't follow in this subforum.
While I don't disagree with that it doesn't change the meaning of bara as it is used in Genesis,
But we get the meaning of Genesis from the whole verse not just one word. Like I said, it is a circular argument to get a meaning of
bara from Gen 1:1 if you read that meaning into
bara to understand Gen 1:1. But take
bara the way it is used in the rest of scripture and you still get God's creation of the universe from the beginning. And all the ex nihilo that tells us about.
The best explanation of
bara in Gen 1:1 I have come across is that because bara is only ever used to refer to God and what he creates, rather than what material the creation might be made from, the word fits beautifully into Gen 1:1, because it does not presuppose any building material. For example you could not use 'formed' the same way, formed presupposes a material that is moulded and shaped.
bara make no reference to what is used to make the creation, whether it was ex materia or ex nihilo, simply that it was God who created and what it was he created.
or 'Adam' as Paul uses it in Romans 5.
What has Paul's Greek in Romans 5 got to do with the Hebrew
bara? Does Paul say Adam was created from nothing?
Isaac was the child of promise and when Abraham heard the promise, on his face before God, he laughed. When his wife Sarah heard the promise she laughed and the word Isaac means, 'she laughed'. God promised that when he returned in a year (actually the angel of the Lord) she would be pregnant and she was.
Sarah laughed because she understood the implication of God's promise, that this old woman was going to have some fun with her husband again. Gen 18:12
So Sarah laughed to herself, saying, "After I am worn out, and my lord is old, shall I have pleasure?" It was indeed a miracle that she conceived, but she still conceived in the natural and enjoyable way. No ex nihilo, simply the healing and restoration of their worn out plumbing, so they could fulfil God's plan and purpose.
The Bible is a book of miracles, Israel is a lineage that proceeded from a miracle. Bara is used only of God because it's an act that can only be attributed to God.
Don't forget the bible describes you and me as God's creation too, and every green shoot in the spring. Of course everything can be traced back to a supernatural miracle if you go far back enough, but I am not sure that is the way
bara is being used, creation refers to what God creates and his creating it, not its past.
This can go way deep into metaphysics even, St. Thomas Aquinas discussed this at length and you'll find that his theological and philosophical treatment of creation mirrors that of Protestant traditions.
Therefore as no pre-existing body has been formed whereby another body of the same species could be generated, the first human body was of necessity made immediately by God.
The production of the first man's body
The theme runs concurrent throughout Christian theism except in modernist traditions that date back to the 19th century and the advent of Darwinism. It is no coincidence that the two emerged at the same time.
Note how Aquinas says 'another body of the same species'? Aquinas is talking about Adam being formed from dust rather than having parents. You should really have quoted a few of the previous sentences as well as we see how Aquinas links this to ex nihilo creation.
Now God, though He is absolutely immaterial, can alone by His own power produce matter by creation: wherefore He alone can produce a form in matter, without the aid of any preceding material form. For this reason the angels cannot transform a body except by making use of something in the nature of a seed, as Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 19). Therefore as no pre-existing body has been formed whereby another body of the same species could be generated, the first human body was of necessity made immediately by God.
God alone can create matter from nothing, without relying on preexisting material, so he can also produce a new form in material without relying on the previous form of the material. Aquinas is not calling the creation of Adam ex nililo creation, but says that the God who can created ex nihilo is alone able to give Adam a new form though made from dust. Of course Aquinas is talking about his interpretation of God forming Adam from the dust here, not the meaning of the word create.
So far you havent shown bara means ex nihilo creation, that there are two meanings for bara, or that there is any basis for the distinction apart from wanting bara in Gen 1:1 to be different from practically every other use of the word.
Yes I have, you just refuse to admit the clear meaning of terms like 'bara' and 'Adam' because you want them to mean something other then the writers of the Scriptures intended for them to mean.
Ok now I think we are coming to the end of any useful discussion. I would have enjoyed discussing actual evidence for your meaning of
bara, but if you won't present any and instead claim you have done so, there is nothing else really to talk about.
The naturalistic assumptions of philosophical naturalism and the Darwinian assumption of universal common descent by exclusively naturalistic means.
Grace and peace,
Mark
No, don't see how those are assumption behind anything I said. Still it has been good to search through scriptures looking at God and all he creates