2 Thessalonians 2:1-3 NKJV
1. Now, brethren, concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him, we ask you, 2. not to be soon shaken in mind or troubled, either by spirit or by word or by letter, as if from us, as though the day of Christ had come. 3 Let no one deceive you by any means; for that Day will not come unless the falling away comes first, and the man of sin is revealed, the son of perdition, ...
Assuming a pre-trib rapture "gathering together" vs 1, and assuming "the son of perdition" vs 3 is the anti-Christ. Verse 3 says two things must happen before the rapture:
1) the falling away (the great apostacy in the church).
2) and the man of sin is revealed (the anti-Christ)
But I assumed the prophecies indicated that the anti-Christ would not be revealed under 3 and half years into the tribulation.
Q. What does verse 3 really mean? Is Paul here suggesting a mid-trib rapture?
This is, without a doubt, one of the verses of Paul that Peter spoke of as hard to understand. Also without a doubt, Paul wrote it this way on purpose. We can only guess on the purpose. My guess is, if his letter fell into Roman hands, they would not understand it.
Next, it is somewhat ambiguous because some Greek texts say Day of the Lord, while others say Day of Christ. Since Paul used "Day of the Lord" in his first letter, I believe that is the preferred choice.
Next, so many people form at least part of their belief from this passage using words ADDED by the translators. Here is one of the best translations I can find. The Berean Literal Bible: I changed "apostacy" to "Departing," as most of the pre KJV did.
1 Now we implore you, brothers, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together unto Him,
2 for you not quickly to be shaken in mind, nor to be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as if by us, as that day of the Lord is present.
3 No one should deceive you in
any way, because
it is not until the departing shall have come first, and the man of lawlessness shall have been revealed—the son of destruction,
This uses "Day of the Lord."
This corrects the timing tense that the day of the Lord is not "at hand" but has already come and is present.
This translation did not add words that throw people off.
So what is it that Paul is saying they falsely believed had already come? It is the Day of the Lord. Not the rapture, not the gathering, but the Day of the Lord, that day according to the Old Testament that comes with wrath and fierce anger.
What two events then must happen before one can know that the DAY has already come and they are now in it? Paul tells us that when people see the significant departing (as in the rapture) a departing all know about, then see the man of sin revealed, then they can know the Day has already started and they are IN IT.
The significant departing is the restraining force being "taken out of the way" so the man of sin is no longer restrained so will be revealed soon after.
Of the two events, which one must come first? Of course, the restraining force must be removed first before the revealing can take place, for it is the revealing that is being restrained.
Most people miss the fact that in Paul's argument in verse 3, by the end of verse 3, the man of sin IS (has already been) revealed. Yet, we know from verses 6-8 that he cannot be revealed until the restraining power has been "taken out of the way." Therefore, somewhere in the first part of verse 3, we MUST find the restraining power taken out of the way. There is only one word that could be the restraining power removed: that is hidden in the word departing or apostasia.
Again people miss that Paul wrote, "and now you know what is restraining..." HOW Paul? How can we know? If Paul could answer, I think he would say, "because I just told you—go back and read it again."