True, the Holy Spirit is our guide if we let him be.
If you read John 14:26 closely, you will see Jesus is speaking directly to the Apostles, not to every Christian who will ever live, when He says the Holy Spirit will, "teach you all things". He is not speaking to all Christians everywhere, because all Christians everywhere were not "still with" Jesus (vs. 25), nor did Jesus speak to them in person such that the Holy Spirit could bring to their "remembrance all that "Jesus" said to "them," (vs. 26). So one cannot properly interpret John 14:26 as meaning that the Holy Spirit will individually teach each and every Christian "all things".
No. God gives us assurance.
But above you agreed it to be true, that under the Protestant/Sola Scriptura (the Bible alone) theological system, there exists no person or no institution that can infallibly decide what is true and what is false for Christians when it comes to matters of faith and/or morals. So, with what you said above to be true, that says to me, under this theological system, there is no way to know for sure what is or is not true when it comes to the Christian faith and the Bible. Because without an infallible person or institution, then every single interpretation of the Bible done by anyone anywhere, carries with it the possibility of being wrong. In other words, there can be no such thing as "absolute assurance" under the Protestant/Sola Scriptura (the Bible alone) theological system.
That's not what it says in the bible. In 1 Tim. 3:15 it says the "Church" is the pillar and ground of the truth.
Now 2 questions for you, do you disagree with any of the above verses?
I do not disagree with these verses at all, I agree with them, and the Bible 100%! However, that does not mean I agree with your fallible interpretation of them or the Bible.
If you agree that the Holy Spirit is the teacher, that all scripture is God-breathed and to be used for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, why is this not enough, in your view?
I am well aware of 2 Tim. 3:16-17, and the adherents of sola scriptura claim that Scripture is sufficient as a rule of faith. (The bible alone) But an examination of the verse in context shows that it doesn’t claim that at all; it only claims Scripture is “profitable” (Greek: ophelimos), that is, helpful. Notice that the passage nowhere even hints that Scripture is “sufficient” or that scripture "alone" is sufficient as a rule of faith.
Again, I agree with those passages 100%! However, that does not mean I agree with your fallible interpretation of them, something you admitted under your theological belief system could be in error, Correct?
Have a Blessed Day!