I agree to a degree, as your examples showed. But in two verses next to each other though, they would capitalize prince in one of them, but not in the very next one, assuming they took that prince to be meaning this same prince as well?
Daniel 8:25 And through his policy also he shall cause craft to prosper in his hand; and he shall magnify himself in his heart, and by peace shall destroy many: he shall also stand up against the Prince of princes; but he shall be broken without hand.
They capitalized prince in this verse as well, apparently indicating they took this prince to be meaning Jesus, the same way they did in Daniel 9:25. If they thought the prince in verse 26 of Daniel 9 is this same prince, Jesus in this case, they would have at least bothered to capitalize it in verse 26 since they bothered to do that in verse 25.
The YLT, which is the version most acclaimed for literal accuracy, would take precedence over the KJV.
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