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Do atheists constantly change the goalposts?

Fervent

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It's not pure supposition. It's based upon the exact same evidence that your narrative is based upon, both of which then rely upon a fundamental assumption. Yours being that of a supernatural cause, and mine being that of a natural one.
No, it's supposition through constructing a narrative. It's not built on evidence, or else you wouldn't just be presenting the narrative and instead would be pointing to the source material.
Using Occam's razor, at least in a debate setting, the natural one wins. In a theological setting however, your narrative reigns supreme.
Not if you're using Occam's razor right, because there is no reference to natural or supernatural only ad hoc adjustments and extent of explanatory power.
I'm a solipsist. I don't rule out anything. I simply attempt to deduce the probability of competing narratives. Unfortunately for you, this means that you lose, because the number of assumptions necessary to support your specific supernatural narrative is massive.
We've tread this territory before, I find your claims of solipsism to be nothing more than an attempt to escape responsibility.
Actually I don't need very many at all. I'm simply assuming that the Gospel of Mark and the letters of Paul are correct as written, unless otherwise shown to be fraudulent. It's you who are then required to use the later gospels to amend Mark's.
I don't need to amend Mark or any other gospel, because my argument depends purely on 1 Cor 15 and Philippians 2:6-11. Mark isn't even in view, but even if it were the short ending is just as well since it ends with an empty tomb.
Which means that you're the one making the amendments.
Nope, my theory needs no ad hoc amendments to make it work with the existing evidence. Yours requires psychological novelties and self-generating legends, at the very least.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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Ever the relativist. (I apparently skipped this post when I got distracted by other respondents.)
If I'm a "relativist," then it's only in a very specific way reflective of Einsteinian types of considerations about frames of reference, but in this case, applied to Historiography and Hermeneutics and Epistemology.

I don't care what "Christians" or "atheists" say. If I happen to care at all, it will be for what the experts on the topic say. If their reasoning is tainted by an ideological position then chuck 'em into the Sun.
That's good to hear.
I thought we were discussing the authorship or dating of the Bible texts, not Christianity.
We are. But remember, from my vantage point, the assessment of both the past (even the Christian past) and historical writing (such as is represented by the New Testament literature to some moderate degree) are interdisciplinary and not isolated from either the texts themselves or from the development of the essential ideas at the core of the Christian faith. It all ties together one way or another, even if not in a comprehensively coherent web.
Perhaps I did not understand your aside.
Oh, that's alright. Sometimes I'm sure I don't make myself clear and probably need to reiterate my intended meaning from time to time.
This will be as good a place as any...

You put yourself forward as scholarly and academically oriented on these and other things. You know I am a scholar in a (very) different field. When we deal with things outside of what we are studying and there is a model that best fits the existing data and provides additional explanations, we use it. Dark matter (and dark energy) as a low-interacting kind of matter fits a lot of data and provides explanations. We don't know what it is, and there are alternatives (MOND), but when doing calculations of the evolution of the Universe or galactic structure, DM is used as it is the best model of the data and leaving it out would be a bad idea. The fact that their might be a better model in the future doesn't mean it should be left out now.
Yes, I'm at least minimally aware of that issue, unfortunately what works within assessment of the hard sciences doesn't nicely translate or transfer on to the praxis by which historians evaluate the past and then 'do history.' At worst, the writing of history is a craft; at best it is a soft science, not a hard science. So, one would expect a bit more latitude with exactly how historians form their descriptive models and expect them to 'fit' nicely at all points. At most, they'll use various statistics and Bayesian modeling to support their historical constructs and explanations, whereas the hard sciences will use................other, more advanced maths. So, keep that in mind.
The "consensus" information about biblical texts falls in the same category. The c. 175 BCE date for the core of Daniel, c. 70 CE for Mark, and 50s CE for the letters of Paul are models that best fit the data as determined through years of scholarship. I'm not going to feel any "shame" using those values and I will continue to ask *why* an alternative is insisted upon. Vague claims of "but it isn't certain" doesn't fly. If you have a specific alternative and a reason, state it. Just as I'm not going to accept vague "but it isn't certain" about dark matter. If you have an alternative (like MOND) state it and why, then be prepared to discuss the consequences.
I'm not going to attempt to tackle all of these various books of the bible all at once with a long essay. Each one is its own historical set of questions and problems. All I'll say about Daniel at the moment is that its contents may be subject to more questions than what either modern linguistics or historians can address.

But where the date of the Gospel of Mark is concerned, I'm going to accentuate pretty strongly the fact that you're citing it CIRCA 70 CE, and that necessitates that we allow that it could go a few years in either direction, not simply in the direction of "maybe later than 70 CE."

The double trouble for you here, though, is that whether the Gospel of Mark was written in 72 CE or 68 CE won't necessarily discount the possible historical nature of the Olivet Discourse "if" mark indeed drew upon his own sources that reflect oral reports or collections of Jesus' sayings from decades before in the 1st century. So, you'll have to think about that, and I'll leave you with a few ellipses................for that.


Isn't the source called "Mark"?
Only partly. Someone should knock us in the head if we insist that the relation between the Synoptic Gospels is only one of sharing Mark's narrative as a main source. There are many considerations for differences that can't simply be shoved to the side just because they share a boatload of apparent tropes and statements; they also express differences in order, phrasing, placement and non-common statements that have to be accounted for in type and possible source(s). We can't just say, Matthew and Luke were "only" copying from Mark, with no intent to re-engineer the goals of the text.

Y'know, as a Christian, I've always asked myself: Why in the heck did we ever 'need' more than, say, one special Christian, inspired document, maybe 10-20 pages in length that could be then circulated with God's perfect direction? No instead, we have a hodgepodge of letters and books that everyone has been haggling over since at least the time of Marcion.

Well, we don't and we have to wrestle with the historical, occasion based nature of most of the New Testament documents, as well as the problems inherent in their dating, authenticity, copying and further transmission.
Like the "YTubers" I've seen don't have their own walls of reference texts and degrees.
Nope, they sometimes don't. But some of them like MythVision rely on having a large scad of primarily PhD scholars of the most skeptical kind. So, what he lacks in his own credentials, he tries to punch it to Christians through the sheer quantity and quality of those scholars whom he has on this show. And there's a few others like him as well. So, they do provide a formidable front that folks like myself have to remain aware of and work against (and maybe even learn from, from time to time).

There are other skeptical type tubers, though, like C.J. Cornthwaite, who do have some credentials behind their youtube presence.
 
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stevevw

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But you have one glaring problem. It's called the Gospel of Mark. Somebody added twelve verses to it. That's embellishment. But not only that, Mark makes absolutely no mention of any appearances of a resurrected Jesus. It's only decades later that some other writers decide to add those revisions to the story. Again that's embellishment, and it makes those later additions highly questionable. How is it that Mark, writing decades after the events, but prior to the other writers, fails to mention your vaunted appearances, on which your whole case for Christ's resurrection seems to rest. Is it because he thought that they were unimportant, or was it because they never happened?

Regardless of how you decide to dance around the brevity of Mark's Gospel, the problem remains, over time people made additions to the original story. That's how legends form. You begin with an original narrative, and then over time people add to it. In the case of the Gospels you actually add dozens and dozens of revisions to it. Which centuries later someone then comes along and edits down into an official canon, doing their best to eradicate all the 'heretical' texts floating around, and making the legend seem somewhat coherent, if still a bit disjointed.

And voila, you have the legend of a resurrected Messiah which centuries later the unsuspecting masses still accept as the God's honest truth.
Wait a minute. Pauls letters which are acknowledged as being written from around 50AD or even earlier mention Christs cruxification and resurrection many times. His teachings make no sense without a resurrected Christ.

For example Christians are crucified with Christ and rise again in Christs spirit. Paul was assaulted several times for proclaiming the gospel that Christ rose again.

Thats well before 65AD when Marks gospel was suppose to be written.

There are several other text such as the Didache (ca. 50-70 AD) or from Clement around 70AD that mention the resurrection of Christ. How can a belief take legend status in 5 years. Clement was executed for Christ. Thats sure a quick turn around for legend status.

Too many independent sources all mentioning the resurrected Christ and there was an immediate reaction which was that people believed such as were sacrificing their lives for that belief from the beginning. Thats not a legend. There is no time to develop legend status.

This was a live response to the belief that Christ has actually risen from the dead. Christians were dying for Christ from the beginning. It was the very fact that they believed in the resurrected Christ is what caused them to die for Christ.
 
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partinobodycular

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Too many independent sources all mentioning the resurrected Christ

I would dearly love to see those.

There are several other text such as the Didache

By all means throw the Didache on the pile. Although I seriously question your dating. Still, toss it on there, it should be quite interesting since it mentions neither the crucifixion nor the resurrection. But that's your problem.

Clement around 70AD that mention the resurrection of Christ. How can a belief take legend status in 5 years.

Again I have to question your dating, but that's totally irrelevant, because I fail to see what Clement adds to your argument.

How can a belief take legend status in 5 years. Clement was executed for Christ. Thats sure a quick turn around for legend status.

Sorry, it's no doubt my fault, but you've really misunderstood the whole 'legend' argument. The belief in Christ's resurrection was probably almost immediate. As soon as word got out that Jesus' tomb was empty (True or not), somebody would inevitably put two and two together and voila you've got a resurrected Jesus. After that the telephone game will do the rest. People are really good at adding nonexistent details. It's practically unstoppable... need I mention some of the 'unofficial gospels? How do you explain those?

Too many independent sources all mentioning the resurrected Christ and there was an immediate reaction which was that people believed such as were sacrificing their lives for that belief from the beginning.

Ehhh, now I'm gonna need you to give me names and dates.
 
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partinobodycular

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So, my first question(s) as a historically minded evaluator of the New Testament content is: When were the first few pieces of literature likely written (and what were they)?

If I had absolutely no preexisting knowledge to go on, I'd no doubt ask for quite a number of things. But as it is I'd begin with the two earliest examples, Paul's letters and the Gospel of Mark. Even then we have a gap, because Mark ends with the women fleeing the empty tomb, and Paul's personal knowledge doesn't begin until his conversion some two or three years later. If there were resurrection stories floating around before that, they certainly weren't enough to convince Paul.

I'm going to leave the other Gospels as secondary sources, to which I'd include many of the Apocryphal Gospels as a means of providing context.

Secondly, I'd ask: How much time likely elapsed between the alleged crucifixion of Jesus and the writing of those first few documents?

Ehhh, best educated guess is that there are fifteen years or so between Jesus' crucifixion and Paul's first letters. There are some thirty-five years between Jesus' crucifixion and Mark's gospel.

Thirdly, I'd ask: What sort of interpretations and beliefs, at minimum, can we assess as being already present and have developed from within that previous interim of time between Jesus' crucifixion and the first writings?

We can assume a vast number of things from Paul's letters. Including the resurrection, and the appearances of a risen Jesus. But this shouldn't be surprising as these stories would've likely emerged almost immediately. What's unknown is how the details of these events may have evolved over time.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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If I had absolutely no preexisting knowledge to go on, I'd no doubt ask for quite a number of things. But as it is I'd begin with the two earliest examples, Paul's letters and the Gospel of Mark. Even then we have a gap, because Mark ends with the women fleeing the empty tomb, and Paul's personal knowledge doesn't begin until his conversion some two or three years later. If there were resurrection stories floating around before that, they certainly weren't enough to convince Paul.
That's interesting you bring in the Gospel of Mark as candidate, but since it probably wasn't written until the 60's or 70's, I'm just going to go with the very earliest of Paul's letters. In fact, for my own purposes, I'm just going to alight upon following two and see what I can glean historically for starters before adding more through a chronological sequence of the New Testament:

1 Thessalonians & Galatians
I'm going to leave the other Gospels as secondary sources, to which I'd include many of the Apocryphal Gospels as a means of providing context.
That's fair, although if we're approaching this in a fashion befitting the historian, we'd want to be careful in sifting out various writings that may be spurious according to necessary historical criteria that we'd already have put in place by which to evaluate each and every source we have, whether primary or secondary. Not every writing is equal to the others in all respects.
Ehhh, best educated guess is that there are fifteen years or so between Jesus' crucifixion and Paul's first letters. There are some thirty-five years between Jesus' crucifixion and Mark's gospel.
Ok. That's reasonable. 15 to 20 years doesn't seem like that long of a time. How much development of 'legend' do you think took place during this time? What would be your reasoning and support for thinking that is the case?
We can assume a vast number of things from Paul's letters. Including the resurrection, and the appearances of a risen Jesus. But this shouldn't be surprising as these stories would've likely emerged almost immediately. What's unknown is how the details of these events may have evolved over time.

That's interesting that you recognize this. So, do we want to say that the Resurrection was something that, by your lights, can be acknowledged to be present as a feature of the earliest Christian testimony very early on?

Additionally, being that you brought in the Gospel of Mark as a source by which to reflect upon as a candidate for writing that reflects 'earlier' suppositions among Christians from between 30 CE to 70 CE, what level of authenticity do you assign to the Olivet Discourse contained within Mark? Do you think it was made up from whole cloth on the spot by Mark? Or did he receive some reports or testimonies about it from other Christians that would have been circulating well before 70 CE?

Do you think the term "evolve" is really a fair descriptor to apply to testimonies being spread and shared among the earliest Christians during the first 40 years of the Christian movement? How about during just the first 15-20 years? I'm asking because I think 'evolve' is an inappropriate term, one that is too anachronistically applied, and contains too many connotations that really only are relevant to speaking about the ontology of deep time and paleontology, not a mere 20 to 40 years of Roman era history.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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It's not pure supposition. It's based upon the exact same evidence that your narrative is based upon, both of which then rely upon a fundamental assumption. Yours being that of a supernatural cause, and mine being that of a natural one.

Using Occam's razor, at least in a debate setting, the natural one wins. In a theological setting however, your narrative reigns supreme.



I'm a solipsist. I don't rule out anything. I simply attempt to deduce the probability of competing narratives. Unfortunately for you, this means that you lose, because the number of assumptions necessary to support your specific supernatural narrative is massive.



Actually I don't need very many at all. I'm simply assuming that the Gospel of Mark and the letters of Paul are correct as written, unless otherwise shown to be fraudulent. It's you who are then required to use the later gospels to amend Mark's.

Which means that you're the one making the amendments.

Actually, Occam's Razor has been blunted a bit of late, and many folks don't seem to realize it. It's not a heuristic that we can "just assume" is applicable in all cases. It would be a big assumption to think we can 'just use it' willy-nilly and on the fly for every historical narrative or account we come across.

That's not really the case. Not any more. We need to remember that the use of Occam's Razor isn't a synonym for conducting intensive Abductive Research about the past.
 
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Larniavc

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Outliers aren't explained by the law of averages, so a sole survivor requires some kind of explanation for why it survived when every other example failed.
There is no law of averages. Do you mean regression to the mean?
 
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