Do we need more than one passage to tell us about souls living and reigning with Christ? I wasn't aware that a verse can't be true unless another verse says the exact same thing. Interesting.
Well, when it's from a highly symbolic book with no interpretation given by the angel, then yes, I would argue it would be helpful to have another similar passage from non apocalyptic language..... you know, using scripture to interpret scripture, which Amils claim to do.
But on the other hand, you have presented a great defense for Premil, which only uses 1 passage to tell us there will be a literal future 1,000 year reign when Christ returns. At least we know you and premils are on the same page when it comes to using 1 passage in a symbolic book to form a theological doctrine....
This is hard to answer since I don't know exactly what the souls of the dead in Christ are doing in heaven. I know that right now we reign with Christ in the sense that we serve Him and help advance His kingdom in the world by preaching the gospel.
Well, according to you and your interpretation of 1 symbolic passage, they are reigning in heaven, correct?
Nope. I'm not doing that. I did not say Christ came into His kingdom the same day He died on the cross. I understand He did that when He bodily ascended to heaven. I'm differentiating between the soul/spirit and the body and I'm not seeing where you are doing that.
Good, you agree Christ didn't come into his kingdom that same day he died on the across, but AFTER His resurrection when he ascended bodily. We are on the same page here. However, this is creating some questions:
1.) So then the thief on the cross didn't come into the kingdom that same day either, correct?
3.) So then to be consistent, you believe the soul entering heaven upon physical death is not entering the kingdom, correct?
**Remember, the spirit always returned to the Lord post death (ecclesiastes 12:7). This is not some new transition that began after the cross.
So is it your argument that:
1.) prior to the cross: spirit returned to the Lord, Soul went to hades, Body to the grave?
2.) post cross: spirit returned to the Lord, Soul goes to heaven, body in grave until resurrection?
I didn't say they weren't related. Maybe you should try paying attention to what I actually say instead of what you imagine me to be saying.
Excellent, then it appears you agree that vs 1-5 from 2 corinthians chapter 5 are about the resurrection as Paul uses this same language in 1 corinthians chapter 15 to describe the resurrection.
2 corinthians 5:4 For while we are still in this tent, we groan, being burdened—not that we would be unclothed,
but that we would be further clothed, so that what is mortal may be swallowed up by life.
1 corinthians 15:53-55 For this perishable body must put on the imperishable, and this mortal body must put on immortality.
When the perishable puts on the imperishable, and the mortal puts on immortality, then shall come to pass the saying that is written: “Death is swallowed up in victory.” “O death, where is your victory? O death, where is your sting?
2 corinthians 5:5 He who has prepared us for
this very thing is God, who has given us the Spirit as a guarantee.
ephesians 1:13-14 In him you also, when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and believed in him,
were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit, who is the guaranteed of our inheritance until we acquire possession of it, to the praise of his glory.
So when our earthly dwelling is destroyed, we have a heavenly eternal home is in regards to the resurrection, correct?
2 corinthians 5:1 For we know that if the tent that is our earthly home is destroyed, we have a building from God, a house not made with hands, eternal in the heavens.
Incorrect. What I believe is what Paul was talking about in verses 1-5 is the future hope of the resurrection and change of the body, but what he was doing in verses 6-8 is talking about how being in the body (the body we have now) makes it so that we are away from the Lord. And he very clearly said that being away from the body is to be present with the Lord. But, you are acting as if we need to have a body in order to be present with the Lord. That completely contradicts what Paul said!
1.) When our earthly tent is destroyed, we have a house, not made by hands IN the heavens.
2 corinthians 5:1 For we know that if the tent that is our earthly home is destroyed, we have a building from God, a house not made with hands, eternal in the heavens.
2.) Paul makes this clear, that when our earthly home is destroyed and we have a house, not made by hands, eternal in the heavens IS ABOUT THE RESURRECTION.
2 corinthians 5:4-5 For while we are still in this tent, we groan, being burdened—not that we would be unclothed, but that we would be further clothed, so that what is mortal may be swallowed up by life.
5He who has prepared us for this very thing is God, who has given us the Spirit as a guarantee.
3.) VS 6-8 is simply a rehash of vs 1. Both talk about our earthly home and our heavenly home.
2 corinthians 5:6-8 So we are always of good courage. We know that while we are at home in the body we are away from the Lord,
7for we walk by faith, not by sight. Yes, we are of good courage, and we would rather be away from the body and at home with the Lord.
So, according to you, Paul mentioning that if our earthly dwelling is destroyed, we have a home in heaven, in vs 1, is completely different than Paul mentioning if we are away from the body, then we are at home with the Lord in vs 6-8? That is complete nonsense, and a total stretch. I would call that scriptural "gerrymandering". The passages, both before (vs 1-5) and after (vs 10) are both about the resurrection.
And he very clearly said that being away from the body is to be present with the Lord. But, you are acting as if we need to have a body in order to be present with the Lord. That completely contradicts what Paul said!
1.) Well, Paul does say we do not wished to unclothed, but further clothed. So I don't know what you are talking about.
2 .) Paul doesn't actually say that being away from the body "is" to be present with the Lord, so no there is no contradiction.
While vs 6 does use a present indicative active in regards to being home in the body and a present indicative active in regards to being away from the Lord. Paul never uses a present indicative active verb in regards to being at home with the Lord. Paul uses aorist infinitives to denote being absent from the body and at home with the Lord. remember, aorist infinitives do not denote time. Paul, in vs8, simply states he is now confident and pleased to be absent from the body and to be at home with the Lord. Paul never says to be absent from the body IS to be at home with the Lord.
I believe in verses 6-8 he was talking about the same thing he talked about here:
Philippians 1:21 For to me,
to live is Christ and to die is gain. 22 If I am to go on living in the body, this will mean fruitful labor for me. Yet what shall I choose? I do not know! 23
I am torn between the two: I desire to depart and be with Christ, which is better by far; 24 but it is more necessary for you that I remain in the body.
I agree.
Tell me, when Paul said "to die is gain" do you think he was saying we don't gain anything from dying until a long time after we die? I don't think so. In verse 23 he said that to depart from his body would result in being with Christ. Does it look to you like he was talking about being with Christ a long time after departing his body? That's not the impression he gave at all. Instead, he gives the impression that departing the body results immediately in being with Christ. Which would mean his soul would immediately be with Christ when he died. You said you don't believe in soul sleep, so I'm not sure why you wouldn't agree with me on this.
I don't think to die is gain means the soul goes to heaven. I believe for the Christian, death in Christ is a gain because of the resurrection. The Christian does have a desire to depart and be with the Lord, for we know that when we are in our earthly dwelling we know we are away from the Lord.