What you're really asking is why is it a bad idea to read the text in a literal, straightforward way instead of seeing it as being figurative or having a spiritual application instead. Because, obviously, not all scripture is written in a literal, straightforward way. Especially Bible prophecy. That is why Paul said we need spiritual discernment from the Holy Spirit to understand scripture (1 Corinthians 2:6-16).
Tell me, is it clear in the Old Testament that the promises God made to Abraham and his seed were made to Christ (Gal 3:16) and those who belong to Christ (Gal 3:29)? No, right? So, is it as simple as choosing to agree with what the Old Testament text says about the promises God made to Abraham and his seed or do we need help from the New Testament to discern what that means?
Ezekiel 39:23 And the heathen shall know that the house of Israel went into captivity for their iniquity: because they trespassed against me, therefore hid I my face from them, and gave them into the hand of their enemies: so fell they all by the sword.
The verse Douggg submitted above, it says this. It says the house of Israel went into captivity for their iniquity: because they trespassed against me, therefore hid I my face from them, and gave them into the hand of their enemies: so fell they all by the sword. Douggg even highlighted some of that. How can the house of Israel meant here not be meaning the ones that went into captivity for their iniquities? IOW, how can it mean the church?
Let's now compare to the following.
Amos 9:14 And I will bring again the captivity of my people of Israel, and they shall build the waste cities, and inhabit them; and they shall plant vineyards, and drink the wine thereof; they shall also make gardens, and eat the fruit of them.
15 And I will plant them upon their land, and they shall no more be pulled up out of their land which I have given them, saith the LORD thy God.
If the captivity in verse 14 does not involve inquity on their part, what was the reason for the captivity, then? Is not any of the house of Israel meant in Ezekiel 39:23 meaning any of the Israel meant in Amos 9:14-15? Isn't it the Israel meant in Amos 9:14 that shall build the waste cities, and inhabit them; and they shall plant vineyards, and drink the wine thereof; they shall also make gardens, and eat the fruit of them?
Is it not the Israel meant in Amos 9:14 that He will plant them upon their land, and they shall no more be pulled up out of their land which He have given them? Who is the speaker in these verses? Is it not the LORD God? Is it really such a bad idea to simply choose to agree with what is being said, then?
Once again, and I brought this up already, not sure which post or if it was even in this thread, one should be comparing Amos 9:14 to Isaiah 65:21-22, and interpreting Amos 9:14 in light of that. But since some ppl might think you can't interpret one OT passage in light of another OT passage, you can only interpret the OT in light of the NT, they might think this is a bad idea as well.