Was the OT totally in reference to God the Father?

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1200px-Shield-Trinity-Scutum-Fidei-compact.svg.png

This is the classic Triadological diagram, and it is accurate, although I feel like it should be orientated with the Father where the Holy Spirit is, to show how the Father is the source of the Divinity, for rather the Son is eternally begotten of the Father, and the Spirit eternally proceeds from the Father.
 
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The Orthodox view is that Moses saw God's uncreated eternal energy.

Of course, and this is my view also, because God is knowable only through His uncreated energies. I subscribe entirely to the theological teachings of Gregory Palamas and reject Barlaamism as being entirely erroneous. I believe the Divine Essence is beyond human comprehension, and we can only make vague apophatic assertions about it after the fashion of Psuedo Dionysius the Aeropagite, using Apophatic theology.

However, my understanding of Orthodox theology is that God the Father is considered to be invisible and unseen; this is why icons depicting Him are uncanonical (one does see icons showing Christ as the Ancient of Days, for instance at the Holy Savior Cathedral in Moscow, and a few churches do have uncanonical icons of the Father, but those icons are uncanonical and were put up in error); therefore, what Moses saw was either the Son when the vision was anthropic, or the Holy Spirit.

And surely that makes sense, because like tongues of fire, the fire on the burning bush, which dissipated without the bush being harmed, was Pneumatic, and therefore of the Spirit. As you probably know, since you are an Orthodox Psalti, the bush itself is still alive even today, in the courtyard of the Monastery of St. Catharine of Sinai. Did you know that Monastery comprises an autonomous local church? The Archbishop of the Church of Sinai is the Hegumen of that monastery, and is appointed by the Patriarch of Jerusalem, but is otherwise autonomous, so it is an autonomous church, like ROCOR, the Orthodox Church of Japan, or the Finnish Orthodox Church.
 
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Interesting question.


A widespread interpretation of many early Christians was the identification of the Logos-to-be-incarnate as subject of all Old Testament Theophanies (an appearance of God).

In addition to Theophany, one may also you may hear the term Christophany.

Christophany: an appearance or non-physical manifestation of preincarnate Jesus in the Old Testament. The etymology is from the Greek Χριστός (Christos) and the Greek ending "phany", coming from the verb φαίνομαι (fénome), which means to appear, to make oneself visible, to be revealed.

Many Church Fathers (Justin Martyr, Ambrose, Irenaeus of Lyons, Eusebius, etc.) believed that the Second Person of the Trinity appeared frequently in the Old Testament in a variety of forms: the Angel of the Lord, the Burning Bush, the Son of Man, and the one like a Son of God in Daniel.

Augustine disagreed. He believed such appearance(s) would take away from the uniqueness of the incarnation. Many later theologians agreed.

It remains an open question.

Yet, one thing we can know for CERTAIN. Jesus taught that the Old Testament testifies about Him:

You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; it is these that testify about Me; (John 5:39)

I think Augustine was almost correct, but the Holy Spirit is not incarnate and lacks a human nature, so any anthropic Theophanies are surely Christophanies, and conversely, where God appears as something other than a man, surely it is the Spirit.
 
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In other words, I did not 'create' my kids. I 'begot' them.

I hope so, unless you’re Dr. Noonien Soongh from Star Trek: The Next Generation and your kids consist of Data and his evil half brother Lore.

:p
 
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A bit confused here, I made no reference as to Jesus being created. In fact, I called Him "God the Son".

Isaiah 9:6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name "shall" be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
(MY NOTE: A child will be given/born & we will call Him ""The mighty God"")

Micah 5:2 "Bethlehem" you are little to be among the "clans of Judah" yet out of you "shall" One come forth Who is to be Ruler in Israel, Whose goings forth have been from of old, ""from ancient days, eternity'''''
(MY NOTE: Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judaea (Matt 2:1) is called the Lion of the tribe of Judah (Rev 5:5) & this verse proclaims He is ""from ancient days, eternity/EVERLASTING''')

1 Timothy 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
(MY NOTE: """God was manifest in the flesh""")

John 1:
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
(MY NOTE: """The Word/God the Son""" """was with God/the Father""" & """the Word/Jesus was God""". Also see Rev 19:13)

2 The same was in the beginning with God.

3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
(MY NOTE: Jesus is our creator God. Also see Jn 1:10, Col 1:16 & 17, 1 Cor 8:6, Eph 3:9)

14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
(MY NOTE: The Word/Jesus/God the Son became flesh & walked among us).

To your satan question, shared scripture above teach NT Jesus/OT Jehovah was sent by God the Father & created everything within our universe. Having said that, satan may have existed before our universe was created. So, the Father or Son both being from eternity past, may have created him.

Satan is a creature; the Biblical and traditional doctrine is that he was created as an archangel but rebelled, being jealous of God’s power, and he and those angels who followed him were cast out of Heaven. This happened because God, desiring our voluntary love, gave us free will.
 
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GreekOrthodox

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However, my understanding of Orthodox theology is that God the Father is considered to be invisible and unseen; this is why icons depicting Him are uncanonical (one does see icons showing Christ as the Ancient of Days, for instance at the Holy Savior Cathedral in Moscow, and a few churches do have uncanonical icons of the Father, but those icons are uncanonical and were put up in error); therefore, what Moses saw was either the Son when the vision was anthropic, or the Holy Spirit.

O lordy, the Ancient of Days feud :) At least as Greek Orthodox, we don't use the Russian style. However, I was blessed when I first became Orthodox to venerate the miraculous Kursk Root icon, which does portray the Father as Ancient of Days, the top center figure. So I don't have a complete problem with that depiction.

1127kurskicon.jpg
 
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Andrewn

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The minor technical error you made was thinking of the divine nature of Christ existing in time before the Incarnation; God created the universe, including time, and is therefore beyond time, so there is no sense in thinking that our Lord simply existed in time in the same way as we do in His divinity.
I wrote, "the Son / Word of God was begotten before all ages," which is a direct quotation from the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed:

"And in one Lord Jesus Christ, the only-begotten Son of God, begotten of the Father before all ages; Light of Light, true God of true God, begotten, not created, of one essence with the Father through Whom all things were made. Who for us men and for our salvation came down from heaven and was incarnate of the Holy Spirit and the Virgin Mary and became man."

Most definitely, I uphold no Nestorian doctrine and it is quite inaccurate to accuse me of such. I believe that God himself died on the cross since the Lord Jesus Christ has only one hypostasis and agree with everything in post #64.

OTOH, I disagree with Miaphysitism that you seem to consider an alternative orthodox expression. But this is another discussion for another day :).

I adhere to Chalcedon and more importantly to the Constantinople Council of 681 AD.
 
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the Lord said to him, “I am the Lord. Tell Pharaoh, Egypt’s king, everything that I’ve said to you.” Exodus 6:29

Statements like this are from God the Father, correct? The New Testament is God the Father speaking through Jesus, is that correct? Jesus says that the Father is in Him. So was the Old Testament mainly God the Father speaking?
Have you heard of "The Bible Project"?
Learn the Bible for Free Online | BibleProject™

You may find it a useful starting point for exploring the scriptures. They have word studies, discussions about the meanings of scripture, helpful videos that offer perspective. The main speaker appears to be qualified as well - Tim Mackie, PhD in Semitic Languages and Biblical Studies.
 
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The Father and Son are distinct, but never separate.

The reason why Jesus says the Son doesn't know is part of the Mystery of the Incarnation. Because at the same time we read that Jesus knew the hearts and minds of men, that's omniscience. Jesus Christ, God the Son, is omniscient, He knows all things. And yet, here He tells us that He does not know.

This is a paradox, but it one of many paradoxes in the Christian faith.

We confess that God cannot die, and yet Christ died, and Christ is God. Therefore we confess that God has died. God who cannot die, died. God, who cannot suffer, suffered.

This is all part of the Mystery of the Incarnation. God became man. That means He was fully God and fully human, at the same time--and He remains for all eternity the undivided God-Man.

-CryptoLutheran

How can you say they are never separate?

When God put the sin of the world on Jesus, He could no longer dwell in Him. It is the very reason that Jesus cried out that God had forsaken Him.
 
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How can you say they are never separate?

When God put the sin of the world on Jesus, He could no longer dwell in Him. It is the very reason that Jesus cried out that God had forsaken Him.

Because Jesus is in essence one of the Trinity. God cannot stop being God.

One of the statements in the Eastern Orthodox Paschal sermon of St. John Chrysostom reads:
"It <Hell> took a body, and met God face to face. It took earth, and encountered Heaven. It took that which was seen, and fell upon the unseen."
 
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Because Jesus is in essence one of the Trinity. God cannot stop being God.

One of the statements in the Eastern Orthodox Paschal sermon of St. John Chrysostom reads:
"It <Hell> took a body, and met God face to face. It took earth, and encountered Heaven. It took that which was seen, and fell upon the unseen."

Do you believe God forsook Jesus?

Do you believe Jesus really died?
 
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The Liturgist

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I wrote, "the Son / Word of God was begotten before all ages," which is a direct quotation from the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed:

"And in one Lord Jesus Christ, the only-begotten Son of God, begotten of the Father before all ages; Light of Light, true God of true God, begotten, not created, of one essence with the Father through Whom all things were made. Who for us men and for our salvation came down from heaven and was incarnate of the Holy Spirit and the Virgin Mary and became man."

Most definitely, I uphold no Nestorian doctrine and it is quite inaccurate to accuse me of such. I believe that God himself died on the cross since the Lord Jesus Christ has only one hypostasis and agree with everything in post #64.

OTOH, I disagree with Miaphysitism that you seem to consider an alternative Orthodox expression. But this is another discussion for another day :).

Just to be clear, I am not accusing you of Nestorianism and that was never my intention, and I should have made that more clear, and I apologize if I came across as offensive.” It is also evident that you adhere to a completely orthodox Christology, which I expected, because the Anglican Communion has historically been known for doing a particularly good job when it comes to teaching Christology.

And your Theopaschite Christology, in saying God died on the cross, I believe absolutely.

Now, begging your pardon, I do believe you made a minor error in saying “Jesus is a created being” even though you very correctly said the Word was uncreated, quoting the Creed, and you very evidently believe in the Apostolic faith in terms of Christology, and given that you are comfortable saying God died on the Cross, which is what I would say, I believe we share the same Christology.

The minor technical error I was referring to, I will explain in purely Chalcedonian terminology since you are uncomfortable with Miaphysitism, which shows that you have a zeal for Christological truth.

Specifically, the doctrine of Chalcedon is that when Christ became man, he did so without change. There is no change, confusion or separation between the divine nature and the human nature which exist in hypostatic union.

So the technical error was this - in saying Jesus is a created being, your words suggest that the hypostatic union results in something new, which imparts change onto the person of the Word, and that the being of Jesus Christ and the Word of God are not identical, which is contradictory to your belief in both Chalcedonian hypostatic union and Theopaschitism.

What I think would have been clearer and more accurate would have been if you had said “The human nature of Jesus is created and without change He put it on.”

Do you get what I am saying? Because I want to reiterate: you have made it clear that you are Christologically in agreement with Chalcedon and that your Christology is extremely correct; indeed it is more accurate and more orthodox than that of Emperor Justinian, who despite being responsible for incorporating the Theopaschite hymn Ho Monogenes in the Byzantine Rite liturgy, later in life took a stand that made him very clearly not a Theopaschite but an Apthartodocetist. Apthartodocetism is technically allowed under Chalcedon, but Theopaschitism was the preferred and prevailing expression, and I appreciate and admire your Theopaschite belief.

Also, I would note that under the Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed, any of the Christological positions of the fifth and sixth century controversies are verbally compatible with it, including Nestorianism, Monophysitism and Monothelitism, with the exception of the Tritheism of John Philoponus, and other sixth century descendants of the Eutychians.

So I hope that clears things up. I agree with your Christology almost exactly or exactly, I simply think that when you said Jesus was a created being, this was technically an undesirable way of expressing the fact that His human nature is created; the uncreated put on the created to save creation. It also violates the principle of Communicatio Idiomatum, which as a Theopaschite, becomes even more important, because since you agree with me that God did die on the cross, we have to be able to go the other way as well, because Theopaschitism is an example of idioms being communicated between the two natures in hypostatic union.
 
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" This is my beloved Son with whom I am well pleased " Unless Angels are liars, this would have to be God the Father speaking.
Angels can lie, but I didn’t say “the voice” was an angel.

could it be the Holy Spirit?
 
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The Liturgist

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I wrote, "the Son / Word of God was begotten before all ages," which is a direct quotation from the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed:

"And in one Lord Jesus Christ, the only-begotten Son of God, begotten of the Father before all ages; Light of Light, true God of true God, begotten, not created, of one essence with the Father through Whom all things were made. Who for us men and for our salvation came down from heaven and was incarnate of the Holy Spirit and the Virgin Mary and became man."

Most definitely, I uphold no Nestorian doctrine and it is quite inaccurate to accuse me of such. I believe that God himself died on the cross since the Lord Jesus Christ has only one hypostasis and agree with everything in post #64.

OTOH, I disagree with Miaphysitism that you seem to consider an alternative orthodox expression. But this is another discussion for another day :).

I adhere to Chalcedon and more importantly to the Constantinople Council of 681 AD.

By the way, for reasons of humility, in objecting to the one expression you used, I will admit the possibility I made a technical error and not you. Or we could both be in error on that point. One thing I am convinced of however is that your Christological beliefs are not in any respect erroneous.
 
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Bobber

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Then why does the Son not know the day or time of the Day of the Lord?

But nobody knows when that day or hour will come, not the heavenly angels and not the Son. Only the Father knows. Matthew 24:36

I can't absolutely prove this with scripture but I think it's more than likely Jesus DOES know the day of his coming now. This is where one gets into conversation about just what the incarnation meant. Scripture I believe states during his 33 years on earth the be a second Adam or last Adam he laid aside his God attributes. Phil 2:7 Many debate to what measure he did this and I have my own thoughts on the matter but I think all are forced to believe he at least did it in a measure. Luke 2:40 wouldn't make sense if this wasn't true, where it states Jesus grew in wisdom....

If you HAVE full attributes how is it possible that you'd need to grow and I'm talking about in wisdom. When Jesus was resurrected he took back his full attributes so now very possibly he does know. Of course the Lord might say to me someday, No I didn't know even when I went back to Heaven. That would mean that those in the Godhead, Father, Son and Holy Spirit might have some unique jurisdiction of what they do or are responsible over. I'm good with either scenario that he might know now or that he doesn't. The thing that's really important is to be ready for his return.
 
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Do you believe God forsook Jesus?

Do you believe Jesus really died?
#1
This is from an OCA site:
Against this recent theory, the biblical evidence supports the councils of Ephesus and Chalcedon. For those who follow the doctrinal guidance of those councils, it was not possible for God the Father to forsake His Son in any real—factual—sense, because the Father and the Son are of “one being” (homoousios). The godhead is indivisible.​

The message of Jesus’ cry, therefore, in no way suggests God’s actual abandonment of him. This prayer conveys, not an objective, reified condition of Jesus, but, rather, his human experience of distance from God. The abandonment was psychological, not ontological. God never abandons His friends and loyal servants—much less His Son. Nonetheless, it often happens that they feel abandoned…
#2
As for Jesus death, we have a 2 hour Great Friday Lamentation service. Just one verse in the service reads:

Going down to death, O Life immortal, Thou hast slain hell with the dazzling light of Thy divinity. And when Thou hast raised up the dead from their dwelling place beneath the earth, all the powers of heaven cried aloud: “Giver of Life, O Christ our God, glory to Thee.'
One of the highlights of the Lamentations service is carrying an icon of crucified Christ in a tomb. This is a picture of Tom Hanks, who is Greek Orthodox, serving as a tomb bearer.
upload_2021-3-5_8-28-0.jpeg
 
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Bobber

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I can think of another couple of reasons.
One is that within the Godhead there are different roles and responsibilities.
More probably Jesus was dealing with the fact people were going to set dates for his second advent and he was trying to head that off. Of course some do it anyway.
I think we can all be so very thankful to the Lord that he did make this statement. At least those who bought into someone's claim of a date can recover themselves fairly easily by finally coming to terms by remembering that the Lord told us not to do this. They might say how could I be so stupid when the Lord was SO CLEAR.
 
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Bobber

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" This is my beloved Son with whom I am well pleased " Unless Angels are liars, this would have to be God the Father speaking.
Sure it's God the Father speaking. Of course there are many things in scripture people wonder about but I'm not a fan of questioning certain things which should be considered self-evident. I think when we go down that road of doing so the most clear things about reality becomes lost and there's no saying what delusions one might accept. God I believe wants us to walk in some basic common sense when it comes to not questioning self evident things.
 
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#1
This is from an OCA site:
Against this recent theory, the biblical evidence supports the councils of Ephesus and Chalcedon. For those who follow the doctrinal guidance of those councils, it was not possible for God the Father to forsake His Son in any real—factual—sense, because the Father and the Son are of “one being” (homoousios). The godhead is indivisible.​

The message of Jesus’ cry, therefore, in no way suggests God’s actual abandonment of him. This prayer conveys, not an objective, reified condition of Jesus, but, rather, his human experience of distance from God. The abandonment was psychological, not ontological. God never abandons His friends and loyal servants—much less His Son. Nonetheless, it often happens that they feel abandoned…
#2
As for Jesus death, we have a 2 hour Great Friday Lamentation service. Just one verse in the service reads:

Going down to death, O Life immortal, Thou hast slain hell with the dazzling light of Thy divinity. And when Thou hast raised up the dead from their dwelling place beneath the earth, all the powers of heaven cried aloud: “Giver of Life, O Christ our God, glory to Thee.'
One of the highlights of the Lamentations service is carrying an icon of crucified Christ in a tomb. This is a picture of Tom Hanks, who is Greek Orthodox, serving as a tomb bearer.
View attachment 295782

Did Jesus lose His life?
 
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