Does God want "all men" to be saved?

BobRyan

Junior Member
Angels Team
Site Supporter
Nov 21, 2008
51,352
10,607
Georgia
✟912,457.00
Country
United States
Faith
SDA
Marital Status
Married
Do you think the Jewish Gospel is the same as the Christian Gospel?

The term "Jewish Gospel" is not in the Bible.

Here is what is in the Bible.

Gal 1:6-9 - there is only ONE Gospel
Gal 3:8 that "Gospel was preached to Abraham"
Heb 4:2 "The Gospel was preached to US just as it was to THEM also"
 
  • Agree
Reactions: Brightfame52
Upvote 0

5thKingdom

Newbie
Mar 23, 2015
3,698
219
✟35,230.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
There is no such thing as "A Jewish Kingdom of Heaven" the only one that has a "Kingdom of Heaven" is God.


That only shows how little you know.
Jesus named the Jewish "Kingdom of Heaven" in Mat 22:2-7.
Did you even bother to read what Jesus said?
Or are you calling Jesus a LIAR?


Jesus said the "Kingdom of God" was being TAKEN
from the Jews and GIVEN to the Christians in Mat 21:43
Did you even bother to read what Jesus said?
Or are you calling Jesus a LIAR?

.
 
Upvote 0

BobRyan

Junior Member
Angels Team
Site Supporter
Nov 21, 2008
51,352
10,607
Georgia
✟912,457.00
Country
United States
Faith
SDA
Marital Status
Married
1 John 4:14 "God sent His Son to be the Savior of the WORLD"
1 John 2:2 "He is the atoning sacrifice for OUR sins and NOT for our sins only but for the sins of the whole WORLD"
2 Peter 3 "God is not WILLING that any should perish but that ALL should come to repentance"
John 16 "The Holy Spirit convicts the WORLD of sin and righteousness and judgment"
John 3:16 "God so loved the WORLD that He gave"


God asks this --
Is 5:4 "What MORE was there to do than that which I have already done?"

Thank you for your "opinion"
(1) Do you have any SCRIPTURE that says that?

That is not my opinion - it is scripture.
 
Upvote 0

Clare73

Blood-bought
Jun 12, 2012
25,225
6,170
North Carolina
✟278,298.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
.
The other day someone posted Romans 11:32 to make
the argument that God wants "all men" to become saved.


Rom 11:32
For God hath concluded them all in unbelief,
that he might have mercy upon all.


This a perfect example of the most common reason "Christians" teach
heresy. They take one or two verses and build a "doctrine" around them
without ensuring they have HARMONY with ALL RELATED Scriptures.


Any (good) heresy must harmonize with one or two Scriptures because
any (good) LIE must contain a little truth. However, building a "doctrine"
without harmony with ALL RELATED passages is, at best, only teaching
some PARTIAL-TRUTH (more commonly known as a LIE).


So, let's TEST the notion that God wants "all men" to be saved,
or if the CONTEXT of such statements is God wants "all the elect"
to become saved.


(1) First, let's establish a basic principle: Did Jesus teach that
ALL MEN can be saved, or did He teach ALL ELECT will be saved?
In John 6 Jesus taught that NO MAN can come to Him unless the
Father first "draws them" [v6:44] and ALL MEN the Father draws
"shall come" to Him and NONE of them would ever be lost [v6:37].
This most basic and essential Gospel Truth is then repeated [v6:39].


(2) Next, let's establish another basic principle: Some men were
NEVER MEANT to be saved. Jesus explains [Mark 4:12] that some
men were NEVER MEANT to "perceive" or "understand" the Gospel,
or to ever "be converted" or "have their sins forgiven". Clearly, those
who were NEVER MEANT to "have their sins forgiven" could never be
part of "His sheep" (the saved elect) that the Father "draws" to Christ.


Moreover, while the member cited Romans 11:32 to "prove" that God
wanted ALL MEN to be saved, we can see the CONTEXT of Romans 11
contradicts that assumption, demonstrating once again that the readers
of Scripture have no hope of understanding the MEANING of a passage
when they cannot discern the CONTEXT of that passage.


Rom 11:7-10
What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for;
but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded
(According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber,
eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear
unto this day. And David saith, Let their table be made a snare, and a
trap, and a stumblingblock, and a recompence unto them: Let their
eyes be darkened, that they may not see
, and bow down their
back always.


So we see in #1 that ALL MEN God wants to be saved will be saved
and NONE will ever be lost. And then we see in #2 that some were
NEVER MEANT to "perceive" or "understand" or "see" or "hear"
or ever "be converted" or "have their sins forgiven". These men
were NEVER MEANT to be saved.


(3) This basic and essential Gospel Truth harmonizes with ALL RELATED
Scriptures (when the context is understood) and is taught in many other
passages. For example, in Romans 9:19-24 the Bible teaches that God
CREATED some men to be "vessels of honor" (saved) and He also
CREATED some men to be "vessels of dishonor" (unsaved).


This same Gospel principle is repeated, showing God CREATED some
men to be "vessels of mercy" (saved) and God CREATED other men
to be "vessels of wrath fitted for destruction" (unsaved)


Not only is this basic and essential Gospel Truth taught in John 6 and
Mark 4 and Romans 9 and Romans 11, it is taught throughout the Bible,
and it is DEMONSTRATED throughout all of recorded history (reality).


(4) When God destroyed the earth did He intend to save ALL the
men/women/children? Or did He intend to save ONLY Noah and family?
Clearly the notion that God wanted to save "all men" is proven false.


(5) When God destroyed Sodom and Gomorrha did He intend to
save ALL men/women/children? Or did He intend to save ONLY
Lot and family? Again, clearly the notion that God wanted to save
"all men" is proven false.


(6) During the Jewish "Kingdom of Heaven" [Mat 22:2 and 21:43]
did God intend to save ALL JEWS, or only some Jews? And did God
intend to save ANY GENTILES during that period, or only a very few?
Clearly the notion that God wanted to save "all men" is proven false.


(7) During the Christian "Kingdom of Heaven" [Mat 13, in 8 verses]
did God intend to save ANY unsaved "tares" in the church who were
SOWN by Satan, or ONLY the saved "wheat" in the church who were
SOWN by God? And, did God intend to save ANY of the lost souls who
were OUTSIDE the church, and rejecting both Jesus and the Gospel?


Mar 6:11-12
And whosoever shall not receive you, nor hear you, when ye depart
thence, shake off the dust under your feet for a testimony against
them
. Verily I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for Sodom
and Gomorrha
in the day of judgment, than for that city. And they
went out, and preached that men should repent.


(8) During the Great Tribulation "Kingdom of Heaven" [Mat 25:1-13],
also shown as the 7-Headed Revelation Beast, did God intend to save
ANY of the "foolish virgins", or ONLY the "wise virgins"? Again we
see the Gospel does not teach that God intends "all men" to be saved.


Mat 25:10-13
And while they [foolish virgins] went to buy, the bridegroom [Jesus]
came; and they that were ready [wise virgins] went in with him
to the marriage
: and the door was shut [after that Final Harvest].

Afterward came also the other [foolish] virgins, saying, Lord, Lord,
open to us. But he answered and said, Verily I say unto you,
I know you not. Watch therefore, for ye know neither the day nor
the hour wherein the Son of man cometh.


Of course there are MANY more passages teaching some men were
NEVER MEANT to be saved. Passages where Jesus calls people by
names like "serpents" and "children of hell" and "swine" and "dogs"
and "vipers" and "wolves in sheep's clothing" and "false prophets"
and "the blind" and "children of Satan"... but the limited examples
provided above (#1-#8) are sufficient to refute the heresy that God
wants "all men" to be saved.


The ONLY measure of Biblical Truth is harmony with ALL RELATED
Scriptures. Therefore, whenever a "doctrine" contradicts Scripture
we know absolutely that "doctrine" is not Biblical.


Jim
Well, then. . .that thorough analysis leaves only one conclusion:

of the several senses in which "all" is used by Paul, this one is Gentile as well as Jew; i.e.
"all without distinction," rather than "all without exception."
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

Butterball1

Well-Known Member
Dec 31, 2020
688
121
59
Tennessee
✟32,337.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
The OP had 8 examples of Scripture and history...
you did not address any of them. Why not?

Jim
THe OP cites verses and ASSUMES Calvinistic ideas into those verses while given no proof. Many of the verses have been refuted but OP continues to cite them anyway.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Butterball1

Well-Known Member
Dec 31, 2020
688
121
59
Tennessee
✟32,337.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
The question on the OP is very simple,
Does God want all men to be saved?

What is your answer?

Jim


2 Peter 3:9 "The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance."

Nothing here about willing SOME not perishing.

1 Timothy 2:4 "Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth."

All men literally means all men

Romans 5:18 "Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life."

Paul's point here is that the benefit from of the righteousness of Christ (justification) is available unto all men who have been affected by sin (condemned) since sin entered the world through the offence of Adam. The "all men" refer to the same people both times.....all men who have been affected by sin, then that same all men can benefit from Christ's death.

John 3:14-15 "And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up: That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life."

It was not just SOME who were bitten by poisonous serpent that could go look upon the bronze serpent but any and all who was bitten could go look at the sepent for a cure. Likewise any and all bitten by the poison of sin can look to the cross of Christ for a cure.

1 Timothy 4:10 "For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe."

Saviour of all men, unbelievers but particularly believers.

2 Corinthians 5:14 "For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead:" Is there any reason the "all" here in verse 14 should be any different than the "all" in the sane context of 2 Corinthians 5:10? Will ALL or just some appear before the judgment seat? Christ die for ALL or just some?

Romans 5:6 "For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly."
It does NOT say Christ died only for the elect. Since ALL have sinned (Romans 3:23) then ALL can be called ungodly.

Matthew 11:28-20 Come unto me, all ye that labour and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest. Take my yoke upon you, and learn of me; for I am meek and lowly in heart: and ye shall find rest unto your souls. For my yoke is easy, and my burden is light." Any and all who have troubled and burdened by sin can come to Christ. It was not just "the elect" that have been troubled and burdened by sin but any and everyone.
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

5thKingdom

Newbie
Mar 23, 2015
3,698
219
✟35,230.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
Well, then. that thorough analysis leaves only one conclusion of the several senses in which "all" is used by Paul, this one is Gentile as well as Jew; i.e. "all without distinction," not "all without exception."


Excellent observation.
Thank you for the enlightened comment:


Without distinction:

Mat 28:18-20
And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying,
All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them
in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.


Not without exception:

Mar 6:11-12
And whosoever shall not receive you, nor hear you,
when ye depart thence, shake off the dust under your feet
for a testimony against them. Verily I say unto you, It shall
be more tolerable for Sodom and Gomorrha in the day of judgment, than for that city.
And they went out, and
preached that men should repent.


.
 
  • Friendly
Reactions: Clare73
Upvote 0

5thKingdom

Newbie
Mar 23, 2015
3,698
219
✟35,230.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
THe OP cites verses and ASSUMES Calvinistic ideas into those verses while given no proof. Many of the verses have been refuted but OP continues to cite them anyway.


No, you only pretend that to protect your Arminian theology.
The OP cites Scriptures which speak for themselves.

Jim
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Reactions: Clare73
Upvote 0

Clare73

Blood-bought
Jun 12, 2012
25,225
6,170
North Carolina
✟278,298.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
Excellent observation.
Thank you for the enlightened comment:


Without distinction:

Mat 28:18-20
And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying,
All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them
in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.


Not without exception:

Mar 6:11-12
And whosoever shall not receive you, nor hear you,
when ye depart thence, shake off the dust under your feet
for a testimony against them. Verily I say unto you, It shall
be more tolerable for Sodom and Gomorrha in the day of judgment, than for that city.
And they went out, and
preached that men should repent.


.
Interesting thread. . .
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
Dec 14, 2020
3,847
328
66
Georgia
✟125,375.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
So you think the OT Scriptures are the SAME
as the NT Scriptures?
No but the OT Gospel is the NT Gospel. The Old Testament is New Testament concealed, the NT is the OT revealed. When Paul preached the Gospel in the NT times, he used the OT scripture 1 Cor 15:3-4

3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:


The Gospel is confined to ethnicity.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
Dec 14, 2020
3,847
328
66
Georgia
✟125,375.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
butterball1

All men literally means all men

Romans 5:18 "Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life."

Paul's point here is that the benefit from of the righteousness of Christ (justification) is available unto all men who have been affected by sin (condemned) since sin entered the world through the offence of Adam. The "all men" refer to the same people both times.....all men who have been affected by sin, then that same all men can benefit from Christ's death.

Thats not true, nothing about justification being made available, you read that into the text.

If thats the case was judgment/condemnation made available by the offence of one ?
 
Upvote 0

Clare73

Blood-bought
Jun 12, 2012
25,225
6,170
North Carolina
✟278,298.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
Romans 5:18 "Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life."
Butterball, that would be an example of Paul's two uses of "all" in his parallels of imputation
in Ro 5:18-19..

"All men" to condemnation = "all without exception."
"All men" to justification = "all without distinction."
.
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

5thKingdom

Newbie
Mar 23, 2015
3,698
219
✟35,230.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
2 Peter 3:9 "The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance."


Please tell me WHO is the CONTEXT of the verse you cite as "proof"?
Who is meant by "us"?


(1) the saved "wheat" in the church sown by God?
(2) the unsaved "tares" in the church sown by Satan?
(3) the lost souls OUTSIDE the church?


If you cannot discern the CONTEXT of 2Peter 3:9
then you have no hope of understanding the MEANING.


If God is "longsuffering to us", and the "us" represents the elect,
then "not willing that any shall perish" ALSO represents the elect,
and "all should come to repentance" ALSO represents the elect.


However, if you PRETEND the CONTEXT of "us" includes all the
unsaved "tares" in the church sown by Satan AND all the lost souls
OUTSIDE the church (also "children of Satan") then you teach
God is a miserable failure... because they NEVER can come to
"repentance" and they were always destined to "perish".


Again... when you cannot discern the CONTEXT of a passage
you cannot hope to find the MEANING of that passage... and
your theology will contradict many Scriptures... like passages
where Jesus explains some men were NEVER MEANT to be able
to "perceive" or "understand" or "be converted" or "have their
sins forgiven
"... men cannot be saved when their sins are
NEVER MEANT to be "forgiven"


By selecting the verses you LIKE and intentionally rejecting
or ignoring the verses that contradict your theories, you are not
really following the Gospel of the Bible at all. Instead, you are only
designing your own personal "gospel".


It was not just SOME who were bitten by poisonous serpent that could go look upon the bronze serpent but any and all who was bitten could go look at the sepent for a cure. Likewise any and all bitten by the poison of sin can look to the cross of Christ for a cure.


So you think Jesus was LYING when HE said that NO MAN
can come to Him unless the Father "draws them" and ALL MEN
the Father draws "shall come" to Him and He will lose NONE.


Either Jesus is a LIAR... or your "interpretation" is not Biblical,
which is it?


Do you also think Jesus was LYING when He explained that
some men were NEVER MEANT to "perceive" or "understand"
or "be converted" or "have their sins forgiven"?


Either Jesus is a LIAR... or your "interpretation" is not Biblical,
which is it?


Or... does your "gospel" teach that men can be SAVED without
"having their sins forgiven"? Is that what you teach?
Is that a Biblical teaching?


1 Timothy 4:10 "For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe."


First you need to understand the CONTEXT of the passage.
When it says "we both labour and suffer reproach because we
trust in the Living God
".... please tell me WHO are the "we"?


(1) Does "we" include ONLY the saved "wheat" in the church?
(2) Does "we" include the unsaved "tares" sown by Satan?
(3) Does "we" include the lost souls OUTSIDE the church?


When the CONTEXT of "we" is those who "labour and suffer
reproach because WE trust in the Living God
"... then it is not
possible to conclude WE represents "children of Satan" (#2-#3)


Again we find that you cannot even HOPE of ever finding
the MEANING of a verse when you do not discern the CONTEXT.


2 Corinthians 5:14 "For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead:


Just another example of how you do not discern the CONTEXT
and, therefore, cannot find the MEANING.


Tell me WHO are those that "the love of Christ constrains"?
That is the CONTEXT of the verse. And WHO is the "we" that
judge? That is the CONTEXT of the verse.


If you PRETEND that "us" and "we" represents "children of Satan"
(either unsaved "tares" in the church SOWN by Satan or the lost
souls outside of the church).... then it is natural you cannot "see"
the MEANING of the verse, since you don't discern the CONTEXT
is limited to ALL the elect in the church... which "the love of Christ
constrains
".


Romans 5:6 "For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly." It does NOT say Christ died only for the elect.


A good example of why you must harmonize ALL RELATED
Scriptures before you can even PRETEND to be able to offer
an "informed opinion".


Obviously we could do the same as above and discern WHO
is the context of the verse. But this time let us simply show
another ESSENTIAL principle in Bible study. Your "theory"
must HARMONIZE with all RELATED SCRIPTURES.


So... you say Romans 5:6 "does not say Christ died only
for the elect". I agree THAT VERSE does not say who is
included in "the ungodly"... but many OTHER VERSES do.


Joh 10:11
I am the good shepherd: the good shepherd
giveth his life for the sheep.


Joh 10:15
As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father:
and I lay down my life for the sheep.


Joh 10:16
And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold [the Jews]:
them [Christians] also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice;
and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.


Joh 10:27-29
My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:
And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck
them out of my Father's hand.


Notice three things:

(1) These teachings in John 10 provide the CONTEXT for Rom 5.
Some times you must harmonize other verses to find Biblical Truth.
If your "theory" contradicts a RELATED VERSE... your theory is wrong.

(2) This teaching is really no different than John 6 where Jesus says
NO MAN can come to Him unless the Father "draws them" and that
ALL MAN the Father draws "shall come" to Him and He loses NONE.

(3) The ONLY measure of Biblical Truth is harmony of ALL Scriptures.
Most HERESIES harmonize with one-or-two passages because any
good LIE must contain some truth. So you can BUILD a doctrine
based on Romans 5:6... but that means nothing unless/until you
can show how that doctrine harmonizes with ALL RELATED verses.


Matthew 11:28-20 Come unto me, all ye that labour and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest. Take my yoke upon you, and learn of me; for I am meek and lowly in heart: and ye shall find rest unto your souls. For my yoke is easy, and my burden is light."


That is a true statement... now you only need to find the CONTEXT.
WHO
is the verse talking to? Remember... we already have plenty
of verses that teach NO MAN can come to Jesus unless "drawn"
and ALL MEN that are drawn "shall come" and NONE are lost.
So your "theory" about Mat 11 must harmonize with that.


Any and all who have troubled and burdened by sin can come to Christ. It was not just "the elect" that have been troubled and burdened by sin but any and everyone.


First, you create a ANOTHER "gospel" when you pretend that
some men are saved when they WERE NOT part of the elect.
So you have already proven your "theory" contradicts the Bible.


Secondly, you did not HARMONIZE your "theory" with RELATED
passages teaching that NO MAN can come to Jesus unless "drawn"
and ALL MEN who are "drawn" shall be SAVED.


Thirdly... remember the Bible teaches that (before regeneration)
NO MAN will ever "seek God" (no, not even one). This Bible fact
is so basic and essential that it is taught in both the OT and the NT.
So when you PRETEND men can "seek God" before regeneration
you are contradicting Scripture and only pretending to yourself.


So today we have learned:
(1) you must discern the CONTEXT before finding the MEANING
(2) your theory must HARMONIZE with ALL RELATED passages
(3) most HERESY is based on using a couple of Scriptures


Jim
 
Upvote 0

Butterball1

Well-Known Member
Dec 31, 2020
688
121
59
Tennessee
✟32,337.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
Butterball, that would be an example of Paul's two uses of "all" in his parallels of imputation.

"All men" to condemnation = "all without exception."
"All men" to justification = "all without distinction."
.
Hi,

Romans 5:18 "(a) Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; (b) even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life."

There are at least 2 truths found in this verse:
(a) Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation;
(b) even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.

This verse is a like an if-then type statement, that being IF Rom 5:18(a) is true, THEN Rom 5:18(b) is equally true.

Some will take 18(a) and try to make it teach the false notion of original sin, that is, they claim 18(a) teaches that ALL men are UNCONDITIONALLY made sinners by the one offence of Adam. Well if that is true, then 18(b) must teach that same ALL men will UNCONDITIONALLY be justified by the righteousnesss of Christ and that creates Universalism. Obviously Paul is NOT teaching either original sin or universalism in Romans 5:18. People are reading the UNCONDITIONAL idea into the verse.

I see that Paul is showing the ALL MEN, EACH & EVERY PERSON, ALL MANKIND is going to be on the receiveing end of one of two things, condemnation or justification. Being saved or lost are the only two options man has, so ALL MEN will fall into one or the other. Out of ALL MEN, those that CONDITIONALLY choose to have have faith will be the ones justified (Romans 5:1). Those that CONDITIONALLY choose to disobey and choose to sin (Romans 5:12) and remain impenitently in that sin will be the one condemned. THerefore we have all men falling into either the saved or lost categories.

Romans 5:19 "For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous."

In this verse Paul uses "many" as contrasted to using "all men" in verse 18.

Again, some make the wrong ASSUMPTION "many" are made sinners UNCONDITIONALLY. IF true then 19(b) has that same "many" UNCONDITIONALLY made righteous. But again, this is NOT what Paul is saying here.

I see the reason Paul said "MANY made sinners" because all are not sinners, infants are not sinners, those with severe mental disabilities are not sinners nor was Christ a sinner. So "the many" here refers to those that reach an age of accountability (Romans 7:8-9).

And "MANY be made righteous" for ALL (each & everyone) will not be saved, no Universalism.

Again, Paul in this verse does not specifically say HOW many are made sinners and many are nade righteous. So it is ASSUMPTION that many inherit Adam's sin ans it would to be many inherit righteousness. For personal sin or person righteousness cannot be transferred/imputed from one person to another.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
Dec 14, 2020
3,847
328
66
Georgia
✟125,375.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
I find it sad that YOU SAID God never changes...
He ordered animal sacrifices in the OT so that means
you think they are necessary in the NT (God does not change)
Your thinking that is very sad.

.
God doesnt never change Mal 3:6

For I am the Lord, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed.

Now God didn't change, the dispensation of time did. Its called the time of reformation He 9:10

Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation.

All this was according to Gods Immutable Eternal Purpose in Christ !
 
Upvote 0