The Corinthians and Galatians Worshiped on Sunday

Studyman

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I will just take this from your post.
* you quoted...
52 Which of the prophets have not your fathers persecuted? and they have slain them which shewed before of the coming of the Just One; of whom ye have been now the betrayers and murderers:

* I already quoted... but here it is again
Prophetic utterance of the high priest......Because of his office (annointing)
Joh 11:51 And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation;

I think you should pay more attention to the Christ's Words here, and less attention to the religious philosophies of men.

Jesus called these Priest's "Children of the Devil". Can the devil not also read the Scriptures? Did the devil not know who Jesus was? Did the devil not know that he was going to influence man to kill Jesus?

Are you then preaching to the world that God placed satan as High Priest?

You didn't answer the Post regarding John the Baptist? Was John a Levite Priest? Did Jesus go to him, or the prophetic High Priest to be baptized?

When you find the Biblical answer for this, explain why Jesus didn't go to the High Priest that you are preaching was "ruling" "in the Law of Moses", but went to a Levite Priest who didn't preach from the Shrines of worship built by men.

Also, since you are preaching that the Levite Priests were truly "Ruling" in the Law of Moses, why don't you answer another question.

John 19:6 When the chief priests therefore and officers saw him, they cried out, saying, Crucify him, crucify him. Pilate saith unto them, Take ye him, and crucify him: for I find no fault in him.

7 The Jews answered him, We have a law, and by our law he ought to die, because he made himself the Son of God.

Can you find where God's Law condemned Jesus to death?

This is called an examination of Scriptures. You post scriptures, and we examine them in order to find Biblical Truth.

* you quoted
53 Who have received the law by the disposition of angels, and have not kept it.

I quoted
32 ἄγγελος aggelos ang’-el-os

from aggello [probably derived from 71, cf. 34] (to bring tidings); n m; TDNT-1:74,12; {See TDNT 13}

AV-angel 179, messenger 7; 186

1) a messenger, envoy, one who is sent {#Mt 11:10 Lu 7:27 9:52 Mr 1:2 Jas 2:25}
2) an angel

*I quoted...
Mal 2:7 For the priest’s lips should keep knowledge, and they should seek the law at his mouth: for he is the messenger (aka angel) of the LORD of hosts.

Messenger
here is
04397 מלאך mal’ak mal-awk’

from an unused root meaning to despatch as a deputy; n m; [BDB-521b] {See TWOT on 1068 @@ "1068a"}

AV-angel 111, messenger 98, ambassadors 4, variant 1; 214

1) messenger, representative
1a) messenger
1b) angel
1c) the theophanic angel

Mal. 2, that you selectively quoted from, makes my point, and destroys your entire premise.

Mal. 2:4 And ye shall know that I have sent this commandment unto you, that my covenant might be with Levi, saith the LORD of hosts.

5 My covenant was with him of life and peace; and I gave them to him for the fear wherewith he feared me, and was afraid before my name. (Ex. 32:26, look it up)

6 The law of truth was in his mouth, and iniquity was not found in his lips: he walked with me in peace and equity, and did turn many away from iniquity.

7 For the priest's lips should keep knowledge, and they should seek the law at his mouth: for he is the messenger of the LORD of hosts.

So yes, this was the purpose of the Levite Priest. But you omitted the important part of this scripture.

8 But ye are departed out of the way; ye have caused many to stumble at the law; ye have corrupted the covenant of Levi, saith the LORD of hosts.

9 Therefore have I also made you contemptible and base before all the people, according as ye have not kept my ways, but have been partial in the law.

So let me ask you some questions. Who was made contemptible, John the Baptist? Or the Priest's who murdered the Prophets contrary to God's Law? Who was the "Messenger of the Lord" The Levite Priest called John the Baptist? Or the High Priest who "taught for doctrines the commandments of men?

This is called examining the scriptures to determine their truth. As opposed to just selecting some scriptures and omitting the rest in an attempt to promote a certain religious philosophy.

I look forward to an honest examination of Scriptures.

And here
Heb 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

Yes, why was there a need for a different High Priest? What was wrong with the Levite Priests? Why couldn't they all have been like Zacharias, and John the Baptist? What happened that there was a Need for a Change in the Priesthood?

Jer. 5:30 A wonderful and horrible thing is committed in the land; 31 The prophets prophesy falsely, and the priests bear rule by their means; and my people love to have it so: and what will ye do in the end thereof?

Jer. 23:11 For both prophet and priest are profane; yea, in my house have I found their wickedness, saith the LORD.

16 Thus saith the LORD of hosts, Hearken not unto the words of the prophets that prophesy unto you: they make you vain: they speak a vision of their own heart, and not out of the mouth of the LORD. 17 They say still unto them that despise me, The LORD hath said, Ye shall have peace; and they say unto every one that walketh after the imagination of his own heart, No evil shall come upon you.

Mal. 2:7 For the priest's lips should keep knowledge, and they should seek the law at his mouth: for he is the messenger of the LORD of hosts.

8 But ye are departed out of the way; ye have caused many to stumble at the law; ye have corrupted the covenant of Levi, saith the LORD of hosts.

9 Therefore have I also made you contemptible and base before all the people, according as ye have not kept my ways, but have been partial in the law.

So as anyone can see, God warned us about the Levite Priests. And I already posted the Very Word's of the Christ Himself, confirming this Biblical Truth.

So what did this same God of the Bible do, given these Levites Priests corrupted the covenant God made with them? This answer is also in your own Bible, if you would just believe.

Heb. 8:7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.

8 For finding fault with them, ( Levite Priests who had departed out of God's Way and corrupted the Priesthood Covenant God made with them) he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:

And what is the New Covenant? The Christ becomes our High Priest, and administers the Priesthood duties the Levites corrupted and abandoned.

It's right there in your own Bible.

Deut 33:8 And of Levi he said (8804), Let thy Thummim and thy Urim be with thy holy one

The holy one is the high priest

10 They shall teach Jacob thy judgments, and Israel thy law: they shall put incense before thee, and whole burnt sacrifice upon thine altar.
And I already gave you deuteronomy 17.

And they did for a time.

Mal. 2:6 The law of truth was in his mouth, and iniquity was not found in his lips: he walked with me in peace and equity, and did turn many away from iniquity.

7 For the priest's lips should keep knowledge, and they should seek the law at his mouth: for he is the messenger of the LORD of hosts.

But you are omitting the weightier matters of the Law and Prophets here.

8 But ye are departed out of the way; ye have caused many to stumble at the law; ye have corrupted the covenant of Levi, saith the LORD of hosts.

9 Therefore have I also made you contemptible and base before all the people, according as ye have not kept my ways, but have been partial in the law.

So your statement "The high priest, and the judges still ruled (together)in the law of Moses." is simply not TRUTH, if the Holy Scriptures are our guide. For me to believe you, I would have to reject the Christ's Own Words, as well as the Teaching of the Law and Prophets, inspired by this same Christ, which were written for my admonition.

Why would I do such a thing?
 
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LoveGodsWord

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No. The day of firstfruits is Pentecost the fiftieth day (shavuot). You say it is not
Depends if you believe the scriptures or not.

There are two harvest feasts or first fruits according to the scriptures representing different things in the scripture. I posted earlier the scriptures in the new testament showing the first representing Jesus and his resurrection from the dead in 1 Corinthians 15:20. The other 2nd harvest represents those in Christ purchased by his blood *2 Thessalonians 2:13; Revelation 14:4 etc.

The Jews have been keeping these feasts since they were given by God at Mount Sinai. I think your the only person I have ever met that thinks there are not two harvest feasts when the scriptures say that there clearly is...

FEAST OF FIRSTFRUITS (BIKKURIM)

Leviticus 23:9-11 [9] And the Lord spoke to Moses, saying, [10] “Speak to the people of Israel and say to them, When you come into the land that I give you and reap its harvest, you shall bring the sheaf of the firstfruits of your harvest to the priest, [11] and he shall wave the sheaf before the Lord, so that you may be accepted. ON THE DAY AFTER THE SABBATH THE PRIEST SHALL WAVE IT.

FEAST OF WEEKS (SHAVUOT)

Leviticus 23:15-16 [15] “YOU SHALL COUNT SEVEN FULL WEEKS FROM THE DAY AFTER THE SABBATH, FROM THE DAY THAT YOU BROUGHT THE SHEAF OF THE WAVE OFFERING. [16] YOU SHALL COUNT FIFTY DAYS TO THE DAY AFTER THE SEVENTH SABBATH. THEN YOU SHALL PRESENT A GRAIN OFFERING OF NEW GRAIN TO THE LORD.

TWO HARVEST FEASTS (firstfruits)

Exodus 23:14-16 Three times you shall keep a feast to Me in the year: You shall keep the Feast of Unleavened Bread . . . and the Feast of Harvest, the firstfruits of your labours which you have sown in the field; and the Feast of harvest at the end of the year . . ."

There is a more detailed response given in post # 104 sent only in love and as a help for you. I guess it did not help you. Of course you are free to believe as you wish but your belief is not a biblical one if your denying two harvest feasts when the scriptures show there clearly are.

Something to pray about.
 
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BobRyan

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Judaism does not teach Gentiles had no law from God to keep, nor they had no covenant with God.
j

true.

In Isaiah 56:6-7 a text specifically singling out gentiles for Sabbath observance blessing.
“Also the foreigners who join themselves to the Lord,
To attend to His service and to love the name of the Lord,
To be His servants, every one who keeps the Sabbath so as not to profane it,
And holds firmly to My covenant;
7 Even those I will bring to My holy mountain,
And make them joyful in My house of prayer.
Their burnt offerings and their sacrifices will be acceptable on My altar;
For My house will be called a house of prayer for all the nations.”

Acts 13 - it is gentiles that ask for "more gospel preaching" on the "next Sabbath".

Acts 18:4 "every Sabbath" gentiles gather with Jews to hear more gospel preaching in the synagogue

Acts 17 - Sabbath after Sabbath after Sabbath services with gospel preaching and both gentiles and Jews attending.
 
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ralliann

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j

true.

In Isaiah 56:6-7 a text specifically singling out gentiles for Sabbath observance blessing.
“Also the foreigners who join themselves to the Lord,
To attend to His service and to love the name of the Lord,
To be His servants, every one who keeps the Sabbath so as not to profane it,
And holds firmly to My covenant;
7 Even those I will bring to My holy mountain,
And make them joyful in My house of prayer.
Their burnt offerings and their sacrifices will be acceptable on My altar;
For My house will be called a house of prayer for all the nations.”

Acts 13 - it is gentiles that ask for "more gospel preaching" on the "next Sabbath".

Acts 18:4 "every Sabbath" gentiles gather with Jews to hear more gospel preaching in the synagogue
Only when Paul or another Apostle was there to preach it.
Acts 17 - Sabbath after Sabbath after Sabbath services with gospel preaching and both gentiles and Jews attending.
And Hebrews makes it clear David spoke of another day. Paul went to the synagogue on the Sabbth because he was preaching the gospel to the Jews.
What? If you go to a mormon temple and preach the gospel and they invite you back to hear further what you say, that means you hear the gospel at a mormon temple all the time as a regular practice? Um no.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Only when Paul or another Apostle was there to preach it.

And Hebrews makes it clear David spoke of another day. Paul went to the synagogue on the Sabbth because he was preaching the gospel to the Jews.
What? If you go to a mormon temple and preach the gospel and they invite you back to hear further what you say, that means you hear the gospel at a mormon temple all the time as a regular practice? Um no.

The "another day" spoken of in David was the coming of Christ. This is from Psalms 95 that Hebrews is referring to. God people rejected the gospel in the wilderness *Hebrews 4:1-2 and did not enter into Gods Sabbath rest because of sin and unbelief *Hebrews 3:8-19. The "another day" is today. "Today if you hear His voice harden not your heart *Hebrews 3:7; 15; Hebrews 4:7. For the gospel was preached unto them as well as unto us (two different time periods; wilderness and today, Paul's time) *Hebrews 4:2. FOR WE WHICH BELIEVE DO BELIEVE ENTER INTO REST *Hebrews 4:3 (present tense now, today, not future). The rest being spoken of here is God's rest (His rest; My rest) that we enter into *Hebrews 4:1-5; defined as the seventh day Sabbath *Hebrews 4:3-5. The conclusion of the matter being..

Hebrews 4:9 THEREFOR IT REMAINS FOR THE PEOPLE OF GOD TO KEEP THE SABBATH.

Therefore no one enters Gods' rest (seventh day Sabbath) if they do not believe and follow Gods' Word. The "another day" is that of the coming of the Messiah Christ and the preaching of His gospel. Today we enter into his gospel rest by believing and following Gods' Word, We which believe enter into His rest "seventh day Sabbath" *Hebrews 4:1-5.

Hope this is helpful.
 
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ralliann

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Depends if you believe the scriptures or not.

There are two harvest feasts or first fruits according to the scriptures representing different things in the scripture. I posted earlier the scriptures in the new testament showing the first representing Jesus and his resurrection from the dead in 1 Corinthians 15:20. The other 2nd harvest represents those in Christ purchased by his blood *2 Thessalonians 2:13; Revelation 14:4 etc.

The Jews have been keeping these feasts since they were given by God at Mount Sinai. I think your the only person I have ever met that thinks there are not two harvest feasts when the scriptures say that there clearly is...

FEAST OF FIRSTFRUITS (BIKKURIM)

Leviticus 23:9-11 [9] And the Lord spoke to Moses, saying, [10] “Speak to the people of Israel and say to them, When you come into the land that I give you and reap its harvest, you shall bring the sheaf of the firstfruits of your harvest to the priest, [11] and he shall wave the sheaf before the Lord, so that you may be accepted. ON THE DAY AFTER THE SABBATH THE PRIEST SHALL WAVE IT.

FEAST OF WEEKS (SHAVUOT)

Leviticus 23:15-16 [15] “YOU SHALL COUNT SEVEN FULL WEEKS FROM THE DAY AFTER THE SABBATH, FROM THE DAY THAT YOU BROUGHT THE SHEAF OF THE WAVE OFFERING. [16] YOU SHALL COUNT FIFTY DAYS TO THE DAY AFTER THE SEVENTH SABBATH. THEN YOU SHALL PRESENT A GRAIN OFFERING OF NEW GRAIN TO THE LORD.

TWO HARVEST FEASTS (firstfruits)

Exodus 23:14-16 Three times you shall keep a feast to Me in the year: You shall keep the Feast of Unleavened Bread . . . and the Feast of Harvest, the firstfruits of your labours which you have sown in the field; and the Feast of harvest at the end of the year . . ."

There is a more detailed response given in post # 104 sent only in love and as a help for you. I guess it did not help you. Of course you are free to believe as you wish but your belief is not a biblical one if your denying two harvest feasts when the scriptures show there clearly are.

Something to pray about.
Ditto
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Ditto what? You were provided scripture on the two harvest Feasts and their starting dates and scripture stating two harvest Feasts. What have you provided for your teachings in disagreement? -Nothing except your opinion denying the scriptures provided. In your view all the Jews who have been keeping these Feasts for 4000 years since they were given by God are wrong. As shown through the scripture already, your view is not biblical but like I said you are free to believe as you wish. The scriptures provided are pretty clear about this.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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No. The day of firstfruits is Pentecost the fiftieth day (shavuot). You say it is not

No, I never said it wasn't. I said that Yom HaBikkurim is the firstfruits of BARLEY, the day Yeshua rose. Shavuot is the feast of weeks, the firstfruits of WHEAT. If you say anything otherwise, you are wrong...
 
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safswan

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Thanks .I would offer another perspective.

It is one of those words that should of ben translated into English or any known language like the word Apostles the foundation meaning have been changed using words foreign to another's understanding. And therefore violating the warning not to add new meaning to a word (Deuteronomy 4:2 )

There can be others but rest (sabbath) and sent one (apostle) are two that have caused much confusion when looking at the context and how they are used its easy to see meanings has been changed. . changing the authors intent. .

The word rest (sabbath)is a non time sensitive word to begin with. It simply means rest or sleep. It is not a outward sign a person has been born again. No such thing as "sign gift" in that way. We walk by faith the unseen eternal .

Changing the ceremonial shadow a carnal ordinance from the 7th day to the first, as a new era of shadows of rest leading toward eternal rest in the new heavens and earth. Then the shadow will disappear having received our new propmised incorruptible bodies .

Again the paraphrasers for some reason changed the word sabbaths into into the word "week" . The Youngs literal translates it Sabbaths in Mathew 28 as to a new era of shadows . But they follow the others calling rest, week. the other nine times times.

Matthew 28 Young's Literal Translation (YLT) And on the eve of the sabbaths, at the dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths, came Mary the Magdalene, and the other Mary, to see the sepulchre

Above (YLT)the new era of rests .Below (KJ) the improper use of the non time senititive word rest (sabbath )

Matthew 28 King James Version (KJV)
In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.

Week a word that was not even used in the Greek when inspired from heaven. It was inspired as rest not week. It would appear over zealous 7th day keepers hoping to self edify their own flesh . Jesus says they have received their reward of false fame.

It seems easy to see they use the word rest out of context. The parable of a man in false fame claiming he only ate two to the allowing meals on the fast out of three and on the same day (not week) he brought his tithe. To me is like trying to put as square beg into a round opening .

Luke 18:12 (YLT) I fast twice in the week, I give tithes of all that I possess.

It should be I fast twice in the sabbath , I give tithes of all that I possess.

Again the remainder of times (9) the YLT translation makes the same error. Changing a non time sensitive word "rest" into one that is non time sensitive "week".


Could the following be in the consideration of the translators:


3. Week:
The weekly division of time, or the seven-day period, was in use very early and must have been known to the Hebrews before the Mosaic Law, since it was in use in Babylonia before the days of Abraham and is indicated In the story of the Creation. The Hebrew שׁבוּע, shābhūa‛, used in the Old Testament for “week,” is derived from שׁבע, shebha‛, the word for “seven.” As the seventh day was a day of rest, or Sabbath (Hebrew שׁבּת, shabbāth), this word came to be used for “week,” as appears in the New Testament (σαββατόν, -τά, sabbatón, -tá), indicating the period from Sabbath to Sabbath (Mat_28:1). The same usage is implied in the Old Testament (Lev_23:15; Lev_25:8). The days of the week were indicated by the numerals, first, second, etc., save the seventh, which was the Sabbath. In New Testament times Friday was called the day of preparation (παρασκευή, paraskeuḗ) for the Sabbath (Luk_23:54).(International Standard Bible Encyclopedia – Time)



“towards the first day of the week, or "sabbaths"; so the Jews used to call the days of the week, the first day of the sabbath, the second day of the sabbath, &c. take an instance or two (z).

"The stationary men fast four days in the week, from the second day to the fifth day; and they do not fast on the sabbath eve (so they sometimes call the sixth day), because of the glory of the sabbath; nor באחד בשבת, "on the first day of the sabbath", or week, that they may not go from rest and delight, to labour and fasting, and die.''

On which the Gemara has these words (a);
"the stationary men go into the synagogue, and sit four fastings; בשני בשבת, "on the second of the sabbath", or "week": on the third, and on the fourth, and on the fifth.'' “(John Gill’s commentary on Matthew 28:1)
 
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garee

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Could the following be in the consideration of the translators:


3. Week:
The weekly division of time, or the seven-day period, was in use very early and must have been known to the Hebrews before the Mosaic Law, since it was in use in Babylonia before the days of Abraham and is indicated In the story of the Creation. The Hebrew שׁבוּע, shābhūa‛, used in the Old Testament for “week,” is derived from שׁבע, shebha‛, the word for “seven.” As the seventh day was a day of rest, or Sabbath (Hebrew שׁבּת, shabbāth), this word came to be used for “week,” as appears in the New Testament (σαββατόν, -τά, sabbatón, -tá), indicating the period from Sabbath to Sabbath (Mat_28:1). The same usage is implied in the Old Testament (Lev_23:15; Lev_25:8). The days of the week were indicated by the numerals, first, second, etc., save the seventh, which was the Sabbath. In New Testament times Friday was called the day of preparation (παρασκευή, paraskeuḗ) for the Sabbath (Luk_23:54).(International Standard Bible Encyclopedia – Time)



“towards the first day of the week, or "sabbaths"; so the Jews used to call the days of the week, the first day of the sabbath, the second day of the sabbath, &c. take an instance or two (z).

"The stationary men fast four days in the week, from the second day to the fifth day; and they do not fast on the sabbath eve (so they sometimes call the sixth day), because of the glory of the sabbath; nor באחד בשבת, "on the first day of the sabbath", or week, that they may not go from rest and delight, to labour and fasting, and die.''

On which the Gemara has these words (a);
"the stationary men go into the synagogue, and sit four fastings; בשני בשבת, "on the second of the sabbath", or "week": on the third, and on the fourth, and on the fifth.'' “(John Gill’s commentary on Matthew 28:1)

Hi thanks

I understand the Hebrew plural of shābhūa' in the Old testament used a word for to equal 7 days and it rings true .

But the problem is the new testament they did not have a Greek word for seven days . Evdomáda was used for seven days which was coined much later not when originally inspired.

Sabbaths (rests plural), never be come the word week a time sensitive word singular

I am not understanding the Gil quote below. What is the stationary men and and what is four fasting mean . Which fast ?

"the stationary men go into the synagogue, and sit four fastings; בשני בשבת, "on the second of the sabbath", or "week": on the third, and on the fourth, and on the fifth.''

The tithe that accompanied the shadow or fast it would seem would come on the same day, not twice in week. using the word week makes the rest a time sensitive word

uke 18:12 I fast twice in the week, I give tithes of all that I possess

It only makes sense when properly defined . Rather than three meals on the day of rest one an bragged he only ate two .

I fast twice in the sabbath the in rest day , I give tithes of all that I possess same day . There is no eating twice in the week and tithing twice. Its all one false brag in false humility

It becomes “towards the first of,"sabbaths" or rests (new era) not the first of seven days, but Sunday the new rest as a shadow of the eternal , not week of rest .eating twice in a week.
 
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ralliann

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Jewish synagogues teach circumcision as no longer being a necessity for those who are serving God?
The question is what is serving God? Circumcision is still necessary to partake of Passover. So "serving God" means what?
 
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ralliann

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No, I never said it wasn't. I said that Yom HaBikkurim is the firstfruits of BARLEY, the day Yeshua rose. Shavuot is the feast of weeks, the firstfruits of WHEAT. If you say anything otherwise, you are wrong...
You just did it again. The HEBREW scripture says the day of firstfruits is shavuot.
Nu 28:26 Also in the day <03117> יום yowm yome of the firstfruits <01061>
בכור bikkuwr bik-koor’
When is this day?
when ye bring a new meat offering unto the LORD, after your weeks be out, ye shall have an holy convocation; ye shall do no servile work:

The Hebrew scripture says of the offering on the second day of unleavened bread

Le 23:10 Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, When ye be come into the land which I give unto you, and shall reap the harvest thereof, then ye shall bring a sheaf of the firstfruits 07225 of your harvest unto the priest: {sheaf: or, handful: Heb. omer }
Firstfruits here is an english translation.
07225 ראשׁית re’shiyth ray-sheeth’, Not bikkuwr
And sheaf is of course an omer.
The Greek is another matter.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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You just did it again. Scripture says the day of firstfruits is shavuot.
Nu 28:26 Also in the day <03117> יום yowm yome of the firstfruits <01061>
בכור bikkuwr bik-koor’
When is this day?
when ye bring a new meat offering unto the LORD, after your weeks be out, ye shall have an holy convocation; ye shall do no servile work:

,

You really have no clue do you? Shavuot is literally "weeks". Yom HaBikkurim is first fruits of BARLEY while Shavuot (Chag HaBikkurim) is first fruits of WHEAT. The omer is counted each day until Shavuot. Stop already, you are just making yourself look scripturally inept.

"But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept."

Read Leviticus 23
 
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garee

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Jewish synagogues teach circumcision as no longer being a necessity for those who are serving God?

God is not served by human hand in any way shape or form he moves them with his finger. He is the Potter.

Circumcision was a ceremonial law as a "shadow" of the unseen eternal glory of God . The shadow became substance witnessed by the three day and night promised demonstration of the father and Son in their labor of love working as one to bring us the peace of God.

When Jesus said: it is finished . Having of his own volition given up the spirit. . . the veil that represented the foreskin of the Son of man was torn from the top to the bottom by the finger of the Father .

There was no Jewish man or man form any nation sitting in the holy of holies. Satan could no longer deceive all the nations of the world that God was a Jewish man . The demonstration was necessary. In order for the father of lies who uses the letter of the law "death" (thou shalt not eat) making it to no effect (though lies thou shall surely not die.

The removal of the veil took away the sting of the law introduces the gospel to all the nations of the world A time of great tribulation for the Jewish non believers (out Jew) .One ltime of trouble like never before or ever again . it would seem the spirit of lies will be loosed a little season.

Perhaps someone would dare to build another temple made with corrupted human hands and install a new veil. At the end of that little season under the Sun, the end will come. A new beginning for those who had become born again .The veil that represented our bloody husband Christ remains rent.

Revelation20:3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive "the nations "no more", till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.
 
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ralliann

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You really have no clue do you? Shavuot is literally "weeks". Yom HaBikkurim is first fruits of BARLEY while Shavuot (Chag HaBikkurim) is first fruits of WHEAT. The omer is counted each day until Shavuot. Stop already, you are just making yourself look scripturally inept.

"But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept."

Read Leviticus 23
You are the one quoting Hebrew terms. And it seems you are continuing to play games. The day of firstfruits is pentecost. What you are doing is playing games between what is offered (chag/iga) And the day it's offered. YOM ha bikkurim scripturally is pentecost, having its own chag/iga ha bikkurim.
 
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garee

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You really have no clue do you? Shavuot is literally "weeks". Yom HaBikkurim is first fruits of BARLEY while Shavuot (Chag HaBikkurim) is first fruits of WHEAT. The omer is counted each day until Shavuot. Stop already, you are just making yourself look scripturally inept.

"But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept."

Read Leviticus 23


Cerinimoinal shadows of the unseen eternal. The gospel to the world Not a sign to self venerating oneself or a Jew.

I would agree weeks as in seven day periods. Seven to represent complete or in season . Like seven times seventy.

Barley and wheat both represent the word of God .The gatherings of the ripened crops. The fields are white giving us opportunity.

Wheat is ground into flour before use in baked goods and other foods, while barley is mostly eaten in whole grain or pearled form.

Again both representing our daily bread the will of our father who does bring to our minds the things he has taught us comforting us teaching us to remember to look up again. . the fields are white (opportunities are ripe) the first fruits of His love working in us. .

John 4:35 Say not ye, There are yet four months, and then cometh harvest? behold, I say unto you, Lift up your eyes, and look on the fields; for they are white already to harvest.
 
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ralliann

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Cerinimoinal shadows of the unseen eternal. The gospel to the world Not a sign to self venerating oneself or a Jew.

I would agree weeks as in seven day periods. Seven to represent complete or in season . Like seven times seventy.

Barley and wheat both represent the word of God .The gatherings of the ripened crops. The fields are white giving us opportunity.

Wheat is ground into flour before use in baked goods and other foods, while barley is mostly eaten in whole grain or pearled form.

Again both representing our daily bread the will of our father who does bring to our minds the things he has taught us comforting us teaching us to remember to look up again. . the fields are white (opportunities are ripe) the first fruits of His love working in us. .

John 4:35 Say not ye, There are yet four months, and then cometh harvest? behold, I say unto you, Lift up your eyes, and look on the fields; for they are white already to harvest.
These things are for shadows and therefore our understanding. Therefore we should not handle things in a sloppy manner. It can throw us off.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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You are the one quoting Hebrew terms. And it seems you are continuing to play games. The day of firstfruits is pentecost. What you are doing is playing games between what is offered (chag/iga) And the day it's offered. YOM ha bikkurim scripturally is pentecost, having its own chag/iga ha bikkurim.

The FEAST of weeks (Chag Shavuot)...the DAY (Yom) of firstfruits...what about that do you not understand?? Why is this SOOO hard for you to understand? READ the scriptures I provided!!!!!!!!!
 
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