Some believe that the human will is free to choose Jesus. Doesn't this belief betray one's trust in his will rather than the will of God in order to be saved?
The definitions you are using are too vague to make any judgement call over whether someone claiming human free will is actually trusting in his own will or not.
Namely, how are you defining free will? Are you defining it as 'humans can do anything that all that they want to (including fly or make their own planets), 'humans are free to think and act in response to opportunities and stimuli within their physical, moral, and intellectual limits' or 'humans can pick between some limited options?' Etc.
Likewise, how would you define the converse of free will? Is it 'humans have no true choices as everything is predetermined,' 'humans are free to think and act within their physical, moral, and intellectual limits,' or 'every stimuli/opportunity is predetermined so that a given human will only respond one way,' etc.?
Without precise agreement on what is meant by these terms (As they are not found directly in scripture) one cannot test them against scripture.
For an example, both the Calvinist view of total depravity, the Arminian view of Total depravity (and most other Christians not holding to either systemized view) actually agree that the human will is neither completely free nor completely bound, but is a type of limited will: That humans are free to think and act in response to opportunities and stimuli within their physical, moral, and intellectual limits.
So the real difference is not on this basic understanding of a human's interaction with the world and ability to make choices within limits, but the disagreement on what those limits are.
For example, both a Calvinist and Arminian would hold that man is incapable of responding to the gospel message in faith. The Arminian would believe that God gave a common grace to all through the death of Christ (
Jn 12:32,
Jn 16:18) that they could receive the message and believe. The Calvinist would believe that God only gives some select few, His chosen elect, some method of being able to respond in faith (such as incontrovertible evidence, or regeneration, or being granted faith outright - there is variation within the view.)
Others, who hold to neither systemized theory, might disagree that man is incapable of responding to the gospel message in faith and that faith was specifically chosen by God as the method by which we receive eternal life precisely because it wasn't a dead work beyond the ability of man (Deut 30:11-14,
Rom 10:9-13,
John 3:14-21,
Luke 11:5-13,
Heb 11:13-16,
Gal 3:24, etc.) They might hold that a rejection of faith is not due to inability or limitation, but the person's own refusal or love of evil ( (
Rom 2:14-16,
John 5:40,
Matt 23:37,
Rom 10:17,
John 8:24, Jn 3:20, etc)
So the real dilemna is not that of your first question (Free will or not) but specifically whether or not one of man's limitations is that he cannot receive the message and respond in faith; and if he can't, whether God gives a special grace to some or common grace to all to overcome that.
Moreover, isn't the view that the human will is free leads one to trust in his/her works to be saved rather than trust only in the works of Jesus to be saved?
No. Unless someone's view on free will is literally that man can achieve salvation via dead works or by his own merit and accomplishment (which is not a position Christian's hold) then none of the various views on free will or not equate to "trusting in works."
The idea that man must have faith to be saved is not trusting in works, either, for faith is not a dead work, and the requirement that we have faith 'shuts out' boasting according to scripture.
What does it mean in Rom 3:27 that boasting is excluded because of the law that requires faith?
Are there any views in Christianity that address this issue apart from unconditional election, conditional election and the works-based salvation of Catholicism?
If you are asking if there are other systemized views besides Calvinism, Arminianism, and Catholicism, there are a number: Amyraldism, Molinism, Thomism, etc.
And many Christians hold to *none* of the systemized theories and have a broad spectrum of beliefs.
What does truth in the Bible say as to whether the human will is free or not
That is the real question, isn't it? The Bible teaches man is limited by his physical nature (can't reproduce after a different kind, for example), moral nature (can't achieve salvation via his own works, corrupted by sin at the fall, etc.), intellect (can't conceive of the secret things of God, can't know all things, etc.), opportunity (can't believe if they never hear the gospel message), etc. Yet it also shows people making choices to obey or disobey, seek God or seek the flesh, follow wickedness or seek truth, have faith or refuse to believe, etc.
So it teaches neither a completely free will nor a completely bound will.
Whether humans are free to respond to the gospel in faith, however, is a more particular debate that has been going on in the church for centuries.
I personally believe that God, in His sovereignty, has given man the free choice to respond to the gospel in faith:
#1 God, by His sovereign will, gave man the ability to choose whether to obey or disobey. (
Deut 30:11-19,
Josh 34:19, etc.) For salvation, man can either respond to the gospel in belief or refuse to believe it. (
Mk 16:16)
#2 God, by His sovereign power and decree, set up boundaries/limits in which people can act. Some of these boundaries are physical, such as God creating us with opposable thumbs, but the inability to fly or breath in vacuum. Some are mental, such as granting man the ability to reason higher than the animals, but not giving man the complete and perfect knowledge of God. Some of these boundaries are moral, such as fallen man's inability to be perfectly righteous, but that man can still follow the laws of God written on their hearts (
Rom 2:14-15.)
Due to these boundaries, man cannot physically work for salvation or accomplish his own deliverance. He cannot reach salvation via his own mental enlightenment. And man cannot morally achieve salvation via his own righteousness. In all these ways, it is impossible.
However, God in His sovereign mercy, knew that man could not achieve salvation within the limits he had bounded man and so created another way - faith! Rather than man having to be righteous, an impossibility, Christ would come to be righteousness on their behalf, and God would credit that righteousness to the account of any who would believe.
"However, to the one who does not work but trusts God who justifies the ungodly, their faith is credited as righteousness."
Rom 4:5
"For it is by grace you have been saved through faith, and this not from yourselves; it is the gift of God, not by works, so that no one can boast."
Eph 2:8-9
What does it mean that it is by grace we have been saved, through faith, and that this is not of ourselves but is the gift of God?
#3 God, by His character and wisdom, set the standard of righteousness. (
Rom 1:17,
Psalm 18:30,
Eph 2:3,
Psalm 119:3,
Deut 32:4,
Psalm 145:17,
Isaiah 5:16,
Isaiah 51:6,
Dan 9:14,
Jer 9:24.) If God hadn't reached out to man with a way to be declared righteous through faith, not works, then salvation would have been impossible for man. Fortunately for us, He did!
#4 God, in His sovereign wisdom and power, set the rules by which deliverance, forgiveness, and pardon are obtained (
Num 25:22-29,
Jer 26:1-6,
II Chron 7:14,
John 3:16,
Heb 10:11-18,
Luke 4:14-21,
Heb 9:22,
Matt 5:29,
Isa 45:22-25) Mercifully, God offers forgiveness and deliverance to those who place their faith in Christ!
#5
God, by His sovereign power and grace, gave us everything necessary to respond to the gospel in faith through the sufficient work of Christ on the cross.
He gave us:
- Christ; God revealed. (
Heb 1:3,
I Cor 1:4-5,
John 4:10,
Jn 12:46-32,
Jn 8:12)
"There was the true Light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man."
Jn 1:9
Without this revelation of Christ, limited man would have never known the way of salvation.
- The offer of salvation to all people in Christ: (
Titus 2:11,
John 12:3-33,
Matt 4:12-17,
Psalm 67:1-3)
Without this gracious offer, none would have the opportunity to be saved.
- Christ delivered to death that we might live: (
Rom 4:25,
Gal 2:20-21,
Rom 5:6-8)
Without Christ's work on the cross, there would be no atonement possible.
- The gospel proclaimed (
Col 1:23,
Rom 10:17,
Gal 3:2-5,
Heb 4:2)
Without the good news and testimony of the gospel, we would have nothing to respond to in faith.
- The general conviction of the Spirit (
John 16:7-11,
I Cor 14:24-25)
Without this conviction of sin, we would not know our need for a Saviour.
- The testimony and light of the church (
I Cor 10:33,
Matt 5:13-14)
Without this continued grace, most men would never hear of Christ.
****
See also:
How are we to understand the sequence and part that man plays in his salvation? (sequence/part man plays in salvation)
How does God's sovereignty work together with free will?