LDS 2 Peter 1 Divine Nature

dzheremi

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So because some heretics exist you feel the need to erect talk about a subject foreign to the Bible and use that as a boundary? That's make zero sense.

What makes even less sense is that there be this artificial division between the Bible and the faith purely because appealing to such a division helps some people argue on the internet. Such a division is itself foreign to the faith, as testified to by the Bible itself, which calls the Church -- not itself -- the "pillar and ground of the truth" (1 Timothy 3:15), specifically places oral tradition on the same level as written by explicitly exhorting us to hold to tradition as established by both means (2 Thessalonians 2:15), and admits that it is by no means a complete record of everything which it touches upon (John 21:25).

You will not now or ever convince me to argue against the Bible for the sake of the Bible. That makes zero sense.

Creeds =/= God's words.

I never wrote that they are. I wrote that the Nicene Creed is rooted in the scriptures, because it is (even as it predates their canonization).

Because David, George, John, Abraham, etc were all sinners who rebelled against God and spat on His name! Yes, they learned, repented, and change their ways. But on this Earth they were by no means 100% unified with God. The only person who walked this Earth in perfect harmony with the Father was Christ. The Father knew this, and Christ was chosen before this world was made to be the Son of God- cause He's always walked with the Father perfectly. Likewise the Spirit.

'Chosen' to be the Son of God? Like via adoption? Are Mormonism adoptionists? That is another ancient heresy (condemned as a heresy by the end of the second century, even before the Council of Nicaea) which I had never before now seen advanced by a Mormon, but now I can't help but wonder. What do you mean by saying He was 'chosen'?
 
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Jane_Doe

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:sigh:

Yes, Jane, I am acting like ousia = divinity, because, as I explicitly wrote in post #32, the substance/essence (ousia) which is shared by all three Persons of the Holy Trinity is divinity. That's the substance/essence we're talking about when we say that they are homoousios/consubstantial (it is possible to use this term ousia in other contexts, as the Gnostics originally did before the Christians, but in that case we are no longer talking about the Holy Trinity in particular, so it is outside of the bounds of the present conversation).
Any scripture references for this?
You claim to understand the meaning of the word homoousios in your most recent reply, but writing "You're acting like divinity = ousia" makes it clear that you do not. Of course that is what I am saying! That's all I've ever been saying, because that's all it means in the context of traditional Christian theological discussion, dating back to its Nicene definition by our father St. Athanasius the Apostolic in the Creed. homoousios = same substance/essence = same divinity.
Again, any scripture references for this?

I'm sorry, but you're making a lot of claims in what God "must" be, but I'm not seeing any scriptures to back up these claims.

Perhaps there is something in Mormonism that makes it difficult for Mormon believers to wrap their heads around this meaning
The fact that it's not in scripture? That it doesn't make a lot of sense in the first place? That most Creedal Christians doesn't understand it?

None of that is LDS specific.
but nonetheless it remains what it is, in accordance with the 318 fathers assembled at Nicaea, the 150 at Constantinople, the 200 at Ephesus, and all Christian bishops and other faithful likewise.
Which is not scripture.
 
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dzheremi

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Forgive me for being so blunt, but as I've literally just written, this "that is not in scripture" non-argument is against scripture itself, so I am not going to pretend along with you or any one who argues this way that it means anything or is in any way internally or logically consistent.

Come up with something else, please. A sudden attack of Bible Only-itis is only a matter of convenience, not something to discuss. As I've written earlier, every unique claim of Mormonism could be (non-)answered similarly, and yet I do not do that because that does not get to the root of why it is that you believe as you do (which requires recourse to extra-Biblical sources, e.g., the Book of Mormon, the Doctrine and Covenants, and the Pearl of Great Price). In this context, to reply to everything with which you disagree by writing "That's not in the Bible" is a way of avoiding discussion, which would be an odd thing to do on a discussion board.

So please grant me the same courtesy and come up with something that shows that you actually want to discuss things (or if you don't actually want to do that, please stop replying to my posts, as what you are doing now sends me a mixed message).
 
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Jane_Doe

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What makes even less sense is that there be this artificial division between the Bible and the faith purely because appealing to such a division helps some people argue on the internet.
You're the only person I've ever encountered that's argued that the church is literally Christ.
You will not now or ever convince me to argue against the Bible for the sake of the Bible. That makes zero sense.
It amazes me how you cannot see how important it is whether or not something is scripture, and whether or not it is revelation given by God or written by sinners.
I never wrote that they are. I wrote that the Nicene Creed is rooted in the scriptures, because it is (even as it predates their canonization).
If this is true, give me the Bible verses which talk about God's substance. If you cannot, then the Nicene Creed clearly oversteps the bounds of scripture.
'Chosen' to be the Son of God?
Christ was/is always the Son of God because He's always been the one that always walks 100% with the Father. The rest of us have not. He was chosen by the Father from the beginning.
Like via adoption? Are Mormonism adoptionists?
No.
 
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Jane_Doe

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Forgive me for being so blunt, but as I've literally just written, this "that is not in scripture" non-argument is against scripture itself, so I am not going to pretend along with you or any one who argues this way that it means anything or is in any way internally or logically consistent.
Dzheremi, I don't acknowledge the men who wrote the Creeds as authoritative on anything. They are just men. If you cannot make your case from the scripture, then you cannot disagree with me that this is non-Biblical.
Come up with something else, please. A sudden attack of Bible Only-itis is only a matter of convenience, not something to discuss.
There's nothing sudden about it.
As I've written earlier, every unique claim of Mormonism could be (non-)answered similarly, and yet I do not do that because that does not get to the root of why it is that you believe as you do (which requires recourse to extra-Biblical sources, e.g., the Book of Mormon, the Doctrine and Covenants, and the Pearl of Great Price). In this context, to reply to everything with which you disagree by writing "That's not in the Bible" is a way of avoiding discussion, which would be an odd thing to do on a discussion board.
Invalid argument: We both agree that the Creeds are not scripture and were not written by revelation.

LDS cite rest of our scriptures because they are acknowledged as scriptures written by revelation. Yes, I acknowledge that you disagree with this, but that's besides the point cause that's not the topic of conversation.

So please grant me the same courtesy and come up with something that shows that you actually want to discuss things (or if you don't actually want to do that, please stop replying to my posts, as what you are doing now sends me a mixed message).
I do want to discuss things: hence my continual requests for you to show me the scriptures from which this idea of substance arises.
 
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dzheremi

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You're the only person I've ever encountered that's argued that the church is literally Christ.

One: I demonstrated to you at length at that time that you had misunderstood what I had written.

Two: How does this relate to what we are talking about right now?

It amazes me how you cannot see how important it is whether or not something is scripture, and whether or not it is revelation given by God or written by sinners.

Oh, but I do. And in fact I would maintain that the Bible is such a revelation of God (being a record of the physical/non-written revelation of God among us, Jesus Christ), who fills and guides the sinners who wrote it. So also at this level you are making a distinction that I would not make, and that the Church did not and does not make. The Church has consistently taught that no one is sinless but Christ, and that is likewise what the scriptures say. That does not by any means invalidate what those same sinners have written by the power and guidance of God.

If this is true, give me the Bible verses which talk about God's substance. If you cannot, then the Nicene Creed clearly oversteps the bounds of scripture.

It does not overstep the boundaries of scripture. It predates its canonization. Again, those who accomplished that canonization (likewise through the power and guidance of God) are also those who argued that the Persons of the Holy Trinity are homoousios, as you yourself argue by saying that the Father and the Son are of the same divinity.

Christ was/is always the Son of God because He's always been the one that always walks 100% with the Father. The rest of us have not. He was chosen by the Father from the beginning.

I see.


Well, let's just cut to the quick here: Is Christ in His essence/substance God in Mormonism, or is He only God by virtue of His unity of purpose with the Father? Because I don't believe that anyone would argue that He is not so united with the Father. It is more a matter of Christ's unity with the Father being about more than that in Christianity in particular. (For example, Muslims also say that their Jesus figure is similarly doing the will of their god, without himself being God.)
 
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Jane_Doe

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It does not overstep the boundaries of scripture. It predates its canonization. Again, those who accomplished that canonization (likewise through the power and guidance of God) are also those who argued that the Persons of the Holy Trinity are homoousios, as you yourself argue by saying that the Father and the Son are of the same divinity.
Do you or do you not have a scripture talking about homoousios?

If not, please acknowledge that it's a not in there.

Well, let's just cut to the quick here: Is Christ in His essence/substance God in Mormonism
Like the Bible, Mormons don't talk about Christ's/Father's essence/substance.

, or is He only God by virtue of His unity of purpose with the Father?
Your use of the word "only" signifies you don't understand the mass magnitude of this unity.
Because I don't believe that anyone would argue that He is not so united with the Father.
Why do you require such a non-Biblical statement?
 
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dzheremi

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Dzheremi, I don't acknowledge the men who wrote the Creeds as authoritative on anything. They are just men. If you cannot make your case from the scripture, then you cannot disagree with me that this is non-Biblical.

We are not talking about whether or not you agree with the Creed right now. It is clear that you do not, so there's not really anything to discuss in that (at least not in the present conversation). We are talking about what it means to argue that something is "not in scripture", and why this is really a non-argument which violates scripture itself, as scripture exhorts us to hold to tradition received from outside of itself, and entrust ourselves to the Church, which is the pillar and ground of the truth.

It is also violated by the fact that your religion accepts other things that are not in the scriptures that you and I accept in common (the Holy Bible), which makes your "that's not in the Bible" non-argument ring extremely hollow.

There's nothing sudden about it.

So you are giving up the Book of Mormon, the Doctrine and Covenants, and the Pearl of Great Price, then? Or are only the things that I and other Christians argue from other sources than the Bible invalid for not being explicitly written in it in such terms?

This really, really seems like a case of "Do as I say, not as I do", and I do not appreciate it even one bit, nor am I going to fall for it.

Invalid argument: We both agree that the Creeds are not scripture and were not written by revelation.

No, we most definitely do not agree on this. I agree that the Creeds are not in themselves scripture (scripture is a matter of canon), but I very much affirm that the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed written in these councils is written by the direct inspiration, revelation, and guidance of God Himself, through the Holy Spirit Who guided the Church as surely in 325 and 381 (and before!) as He does now in our own time.

LDS cite rest of our scriptures because they are acknowledged as scriptures written by revelation. Yes, I acknowledge that you disagree with this, but that's besides the point cause that's not the topic of conversation.

Just as "that's not in scripture" is not the topic of conversation. You brought that up. I was writing about what homoousios means in the context of my own tradition, where it is accepted and uncontroversial, and yet this is not appropriate, while you can cite your own scriptures to support your own doctrines which are likewise not in scripture because they're in books that are as scripture by you and your religion?

Come to think of it, this is at something even more base than "Do as I do, not as I say", because in reality we are doing the same thing: You are arguing from your own sources accepted by you and this is enough for you, even as others disagree. I am arguing from my own sources, and this is enough for me, even as others (you) disagree.

The only difference between us is that my source is the Nicene Creed which is accepted by all major forms of Christianity that are actually rooted in the apostolic era (i.e., all churches that indisputably founded by actual apostles and disciples, such as my own Egyptian Orthodox Church, and any of the reflexes of the great See of Anitoch, and that of Rome likewise, and of the Holy Land itself, and so on and so forth), was written by the same Church that canonized the Bible that both you and I use, etc.

I do want to discuss things: hence my continual requests for you to show me the scriptures from which this idea of substance arises.

It doesn't seem that you do. It seems that you want a special exception for your own religion, in that you are haranguing me about how mine does not fit your conception of what is acceptable while ignoring how yours doesn't either. If the standard is to be only the Bible and nothing else, then there is no room for Mormon scriptures such as the Book of Mormon, the Doctrine and Covenants, and the Pearl of Great Price, and hence Mormon doctrine collapses due to its own not being found in the Bible, and none of the people (e.g. Joseph Smith, the angel Moroni) or the edifice that they created (e.g., the modern day prophets in their quorum or whatever) being found there either.

Be careful what you wish for.
 
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Jane_Doe

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We are not talking about whether or not you agree with the Creed right now. It is clear that you do not, so there's not really anything to discuss in that (at least not in the present conversation). We are talking about what it means to argue that something is "not in scripture", and why this is really a non-argument which violates scripture itself, as scripture exhorts us to hold to tradition received from outside of itself, and entrust ourselves to the Church, which is the pillar and ground of the truth.

It is also violated by the fact that your religion accepts other things that are not in the scriptures that you and I accept in common (the Holy Bible), which makes your "that's not in the Bible" non-argument ring extremely hollow.
Our acknowledgment of the Bible is not because Creed writers or any other men said so-- I don't acknowledge these men as authoritative. Rather because God said so through His prophet.
So you are giving up the Book of Mormon, the Doctrine and Covenants, and the Pearl of Great Price, then? Or are only the things that I and other Christians argue from other sources than the Bible invalid for not being explicitly written in it in such terms?

This really, really seems like a case of "Do as I say, not as I do", and I do not appreciate it even one bit, nor am I going to fall for it.
I'm sorry, but I'm not understand what you are trying to say here.
No, we most definitely do not agree on this. I agree that the Creeds are not in themselves scripture (scripture is a matter of canon), but I very much affirm that the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed written in these councils is written by the direct inspiration, revelation, and guidance of God Himself, through the Holy Spirit Who guided the Church as surely in 325 and 381 (and before!) as He does now in our own time.
Rewind: so you do believe God continues to give revelation? Whom was His prophet then?
If you view the Creeds as ultimately being His words, why do you not bind them with the rest of God's scriptures?
Just as "that's not in scripture" is not the topic of conversation. You brought that up. I was writing about what homoousios means in the context of my own tradition, where it is accepted and uncontroversial, and yet this is not appropriate, while you can cite your own scriptures to support your own doctrines which are likewise not in scripture because they're in books that are as scripture by you and your religion?
Are you not trying to convince me of the Truthfulness of homoousios? If so, the validity of your sources (including whether or not they are scriptures) comes directly into play.
Come to think of it, this is at something even more base than "Do as I do, not as I say", because in reality we are doing the same thing: You are arguing from your own sources accepted by you and this is enough for you, even as others disagree. I am arguing from my own sources, and this is enough for me, even as others (you) disagree.
I'm not trying to convince you of any LDS doctrines...
The only difference between us is that my source is the Nicene Creed which is accepted by all major forms of Christianity that are actually rooted in the apostolic era (i.e., all churches that indisputably founded by actual apostles and disciples, such as my own Egyptian Orthodox Church, and any of the reflexes of the great See of Anitoch, and that of Rome likewise, and of the Holy Land itself, and so on and so forth)
This is an appeal to popular vote....
It doesn't seem that you do. It seems that you want a special exception for your own religion, in that you are haranguing me about how mine does not fit your conception of what is acceptable while ignoring how yours doesn't either. If the standard is to be only the Bible and nothing else, then there is no room for Mormon scriptures such as the Book of Mormon, the Doctrine and Covenants, and the Pearl of Great Price, and hence Mormon doctrine collapses due to its own not being found in the Bible, and none of the people (e.g. Joseph Smith, the angel Moroni) or the edifice that they created (e.g., the modern day prophets in their quorum or whatever) being found there either.
The standard is scripture (and more broadly the words of God). Different denominations have different scripture, especially LDS (everyone at least including the 66 books). If I were to try to convince you of the Truthfulness of an LDS doctrine, I would not being doing so from a scripture source you don't acknowledge (I'm not trying to do this).



A related thought: it seems that you believe that the "a person must acknowledge Tradition" is very important, and predecessor (and therefore more important) than acknowledging the substance of God. Would you there for consider Sola Scriptura believers to not be Christian, since they reject this?
 
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dzheremi

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Do you or do you not have a scripture talking about homoousios?

If not, please acknowledge that it's a not in there.

I never said I did, and this is an abuse of the scriptures that I am not going to entertain.

Like the Bible, Mormons don't talk about Christ's/Father's essence/substance.

Again, when you write that Mormons believe that the Father and the Son share the same divinity, you are writing about their essence/substance whether you recognize it or not, because that is what homoousios means.

Your use of the word "only" signifies you don't understand the mass magnitude of this unity.

This is not an answer to the question. Is Jesus Christ divine in His essence in Mormonism or not? In other words, is He divine because of Who He is, or only because of what He does? The Christian must maintain that He is divine in His essence (yes, definitely while adding that it is because He is divine that He does what He does, e.g., laying down His life and taking it up again of His own power, which is not anything that someone who is not divine could ever do), whereas from your answer it is still not entirely clear whether or not Mormonism considers Him to be God in Himself, or whether or not Mormonism is in fact saying He is God because He acts in a certain fashion (in 100% cooperation with the Father).

Why do you require such a non-Biblical statement?

What non-Biblical statement is that? That Jesus Christ is united with the Father? You argued that in the part of the post I was replying to! I was agreeing with you, while making the point that Christianity takes it further than that by arguing that the Persons of the Holy Trinity are God by virtue of their shared divinity.
 
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Jane_Doe

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I never said I did
Then why are you objecting when I say that it's not in the Bible?
Again, when you write that Mormons believe that the Father and the Son share the same divinity, you are writing about their essence/substance whether you recognize it or not, because that is what homoousios means.
Nope, because the underlying assumption that substance=divinity does not apply.
This is not an answer to the question. Is Jesus Christ divine in His essence in Mormonism or not?
Again, both the Bible and LDS beliefs don't go into the subject of substance.
In other words, is He divine because of Who He is, or only because of what He does?
If you're asking is He divine because He's made of some special sparkly stuff, no.
He's divine because He is Perfect and walks Perfectly with the Father-- this is Perfection not just in action but in word/deed/though/desires/heart/etc.
The Christian must maintain that He is divine in His essence (yes, definitely while adding that it is because He is divine that He does what He does, e.g., laying down His life and taking it up again of His own power, which is not anything that someone who is not divine could ever do), whereas from your answer it is still not entirely clear whether or not Mormonism considers Him to be God in Himself, or whether or not Mormonism is in fact saying He is God because He acts in a certain fashion (in 100% cooperation with the Father).
LDS beliefs--
Christ laid down His life, He took it up again, He is 100% divine, He is ONE with the Father, He is not the same person as the Father. None of this has to do with homoousios.
What non-Biblical statement is that? That Jesus Christ is united with the Father? You argued that in the part of the post I was replying to! I was agreeing with you, while making the point that Christianity takes it further than that by arguing that the Persons of the Holy Trinity are God by virtue of their shared divinity.
Your non-Bibilcial statement is that this unity has anything to do with substance.
 
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KevinSim

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Oh dear, you're advocating modalism, which is the idea that Jesus Christ is God the Father. Also we are not and cannot become God the Father (or Jesus), we are one with the Father and Son (John 17:21), to be one with somebody, must logically imply that you are also other than them, i.e. another person, as it is a logical impossibility to be one with yourself.
You want to hear another logical impossibility? Try, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." How can someone be both God and with God? The obvious answer is that the term God means two different things, each time the author of John's Gospel referred to it in that passage.

Similarly, there is a sense in which Jesus is God the Father, and there is a sense in which He is not. What else could Jesus have meant when He said that He was in the Father and the Father was in Him? He was talking about the oneness of the two of them, and I at least thought I was talking about that too, about Jesus' desire that we be one with Him and His Father, in the same way that Jesus was one with His Father.
 
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dzheremi

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Our acknowledgment of the Bible is not because Creed writers or any other men said so-- I don't acknowledge these men as authoritative. Rather because God said so through His prophet.

What? What does this have to do with anything? When did I ever even imply that Christians acknowledge the Bible because the writer(s) of the Creed canonized it? This does seem to be related to anything. I did point out that the same people who canonized the Bible also wrote the Creed, because that's the what the historical record tells us -- in the 367, St. Athanasius the Apostolic, the 20th pope of the Coptic Orthodox Church, wrote the first ever list of the now-standard 27-book NT in his 39th festal letter. The same saint had earlier attended the Council of Nicaea when he was still just a deacon, as an aide to HH St. Alexander, the Pope of Alexandria at the time. According to tradition, St. Athanasius the Apostolic there drafted the Nicene Creed.

I'm sorry, but I'm not understand what you are trying to say here.

You had written that your insistence that everything be sourced only from the Bible itself (what I have dubbed "Bible Only-itis") is not a recent stance. So I asked, reasonably, if this means that you are going to give up the books accepted by the LDS that are likewise not the Bible, or if doctrine being substantiated in sources that are not the Bible itself is only a problem when Christians are the ones doing it.

Rewind: so you do believe God continues to give revelation?

There is nothing new to be added to the faith, but God does continue to guide the Church, including in which expressions that we use and which we will not use. There is a reason why in St. Athanasius' day the people were ready to be martyred over one letter (homoousios vs homoiousios).

Whom was His prophet then?

Huh? Christianity is not Mormonism. I am not talking about a specific person being named and declared a prophet, I am talking about the guidance of the Church itself by the bishops, through the direct and lived experience of God by our saints who have preserved the faith from any corruption, such as the same St. Athanasius the Apostolic, St. Cyril, St. Basil, St. Gregory, the three Macarii, and all the others.

If you view the Creeds as ultimately being His words, why do you not bind them with the rest of God's scriptures?

There is no need to do so. They predate the canonization of the scriptures, and yet are not any less followed as a result. This is an artificial division that may be favored by Mormonism, but again Christianity is not Mormonism.

Are you not trying to convince me of the Truthfulness of homoousios?

No.

I'm not trying to convince you of any LDS doctrines...

That's good.

This is an appeal to popular vote....

Hardly. Not in a world where our father St. Athanasius the Apostolic spent so many years exiled by the emperor on numerous occasions for his defense of the faith, and so many of our martyrs and confessors have suffered for the same. The point is that while we are both doing the same thing, the thing that we are doing it with (the Book of Mormon for you and the Creed for me) is not really comparable, as one is of questionable pedigree (to put it nicely) while the other is established in the historical record as having been accepted since then until today as being central to the Christian faith, such that dissent from it is dissent from Christianity itself (as it establishes the borders of the faith beyond which we must not tresspass). This was just as true in the centuries after it, when it was still very much fought against (e.g., recall that the Kingdom of Spain was ruled by Visigothic Arians for some time before King Reccared I converted to Nicene Christianity circa 586 -- some 261 years after the council; in reality, the Arians did not disappear as an organized church until around the 9th century).

The standard is scripture (and more broadly the words of God). Different denominations have different scripture, especially LDS (everyone at least including the 66 books). If I were to try to convince you of the Truthfulness of an LDS doctrine, I would not being doing so from a scripture source you don't acknowledge (I'm not trying to do this).

But since that's not what you're doing, that doesn't matter. My point is that you are demanding that I bring references from the Bible alone while at the same time ignoring that this is not how your own religion works either. If you were to demand of your own religion the same explicit reference, you would not be able to follow it. Indeed, I cannot imagine any such religion as actually existing -- the Jews certainly have enough sources outside of the Jewish Biblical canon (which I understand is not uniform among all Jews anyway, same as with Christians) which substantiate their traditions, the Muslims have their collections of Hadith and Tafsir, and so on.

A related thought: it seems that you believe that the "a person must acknowledge Tradition" is very important, and predecessor (and therefore more important) than acknowledging the substance of God.

Yes, tradition is very important. Again, the Bible itself testifies to this. I'm not sure what "and predecessor (and therefore more important) than acknowledging the substance of God" means, though. Can you rephrase it so that I can understand what you are trying to say? Thank you.

Would you there for consider Sola Scriptura believers to not be Christian, since they reject this?

No, because the definition of who is a Christian is found in the statements of the Nicene Creed, not in a Christian's relationship to the Bible as a thing.

As I have put it before, quite some time ago, St. Mark the Apostle and beholder of God did not convert the Egyptians by bringing them scriptures to study so that they would learn from them how to be religious. The Egyptians were already plenty religious, and there was even a translation of the scriptures (which were at the time the only scriptures, as the books of the NT had yet to be written) made in Alexandria by the Hellenized Jewish community there in the centuries before Christ. Rather, what St. Mark brought with him was the experience of the living and risen Christ, the proclamation that He is the Lord and God and the Messiah, and the proofs thereof. These are the very same things that we affirm, in the Bible which he helped to write, in the Creed which helps to crystalize that same message, and in the faith that we still proclaim today.

Besides, as I understand it, Sola Scriptura was not originally about getting rid of tradition (NB: Luther still referred to St. Mary as Theotokos, despite the fact that this was a term that was defended and made victorious over the Nestorians at a Council in Ephesus at 431, so obviously long after the canonization of the scriptures), but only about elevating scripture to its rightful place as the highest source, in the sense that nothing affirmed in the Church may contradict it.

So, no, there is no sense by which a person may be called a non-Christian for adhering to sola scriptura, though obviously I and many others have problems with some of the modern manifestations of that idea when taken to extremes.
 
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NYCGuy

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Still making my way through this, however two thoughts, dzheremi:

1) Yes, "substance"/"essence" is referring to "divinity". It isn't referring to matter or something that God is "made out of", as some Mormons seem to think. It is important to understand the terminology as it is understood by those who use it, and not import a false understanding to the word, as seems to be going on here.

2) It is very curious how this whole "scripture-only" argument always comes up eventually to limit the conversation. I'm not sure why it is, when jane doe should know that Orthodox and Catholics do not subscribe to a Bible-only view, and such a view isn't even found in the Bible itself anyway! Catholics and Orthodox do not believe that God's Revelation is limited to the Bible, nor even to written words. Something doesn't have to be in the Bible for it to be true or God-given, and if it does, than jane doe needs to cite the specific verse that indicates that needs to be the case.

She seems to be under the impression that if something isn't in scripture (noting that for us, "scripture"=the Bible), then it is merely man made. We don't subscribe to that view, even though she may.
 
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NYCGuy

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It is also curious how a Mormon, who I assume believes in the idea of continuing revelation, and that further light and knowledge is given down the ages, seems to want to limit further light and knowledge when arguing against you, with this whole "the Apostles didn't teach it" or "it's not in the Bible" line of argumentation. Very curious.
 
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dzheremi

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Then why are you objecting when I say that it's not in the Bible?

Because "it's not in the Bible" is not an argument in and of itself. If we both agree that it is not in there in those particular words, then we must discuss what that means or doesn't mean according to whatever framework we are using. For me I have no problem saying that it's not in the Bible because, again, it predates the canonization of the Bible, and the Bible itself does tell us to hold to things received from outside of its pages.

But simply repeating "it's not in the Bible" doesn't tell me why I should care. The Bible is not some kind albatross around the neck of the Holy Spirit, dragging Him down by constraining what He may confirm in our fathers and what they have left us, both before and after the writing and canonization of the scriptures.

Nope, because the underlying assumption that substance=divinity does not apply.

So we do not get to define the word that we are discussing, even though it is only we, the Christians, who use it, and only we, the Christians, who gave it that precise definition in the first place? (As I've already written, the word ousia was originally found in the writings of Gnostics, not Chrsitians, but they weren't even talking about what we're talking about; they had in mind something more like procession, which is a different matter dealt with at other points in the Creed, i.e., "...Who proceeds from the Father" -- and the Son, if you're a Roman Catholic or were originally from within that sphere of influence.)

How on earth does that make for a discussion? I do not tell you, the Mormons, to not define your theological terms in any way you like. If you want to believe that substance can only refer to physical matter or whatever, that's on you, but the point is that for Christians, the substance/essence we are referring to when we say that the Persons are homoousios is the divinity which they all equally share. So again, the idea that someone can say that They share the same divinity and yet are not homoousios is really not possible. It violates what homoousios means, because of course this is defined with reference to Christianity and its historical theological usage of the term ousia (substance/essence), not Mormon confusion surrounding the same. (Mormons do not even use this term to begin with, and it is easy enough to see why, given that they apparently have their own definition of 'substance', which, as far as I can tell from the earlier discussion with you and Peter 1000 in the other thread, is entirely carnal and physical. This is absolutely not what we are talking about, as I made clear there.)

If you're asking is He divine because He's made of some special sparkly stuff, no.

'Sparkly stuff'? No, I asked if He is divine because of Who He is. In other words, is it something that is internal to Him by virtue of His being (what we have defined, purposely fuzzily, as 'essence'), or is it purely because of His external actions which are in unity with the Father.

He's divine because He is Perfect and walks Perfectly with the Father-- this is Perfection not just in action but in word/deed/though/desires/heart/etc.

Okay...'deed' is another word for action, but okay. :) Since you have added at least something internal (thought, desires...'heart', I suppose in some metaphorical sense somewhat akin to essence?), I think we have something we can work with here.

Follow up questions: if He is united with the Father in these internal aspects. is there anything that keeps Mormons from saying that He is of the same essence as the Father? Because the translation "essence/substance" is a concession in English to the fact that this is both a purposefully vague translation (since it is not possible to grasp the essence of God, or even of any random person, through language), and that the Greek word homoousios, when translated into English via Latin, is best translated as 'consubstantial', since that is the equivalent of the word in Latin. So we could just as easily say coessential, as that is a word (yes, spell check...I don't care that you just underlined it; it is!), were it not for the fact that ousia in the original encompasses both substance and essence. So these are taken to be equivalent in Christianity, keeping in mind that we have established at the outset that we are in no way talking about physical matter or any of its properties (mass, space, volume, etc), but rather the divine essence which is shared by all three Persons of the Trinity.

LDS beliefs--
Christ laid down His life, He took it up again, He is 100% divine, He is ONE with the Father, He is not the same person as the Father. None of this has to do with homoousios.

You've confused me here. To say that they are homoousios is most definitely not saying that they are the same Person! We are not modalists, God forbid. Talking about their 'ousia' is talking about the 'stuff' of which they are composed, for lack of a better way to put it, not their individuation as Persons within the Trinity.

Your non-Bibilcial statement is that this unity has anything to do with substance.

Again, linguistically and by how it has always been conceived of within Christianity (I am not arguing the Mormon position to begin with; I'll leave that up to you), that is just what the word means: homo meaning 'the same' and ousia meaning 'substance/essence'. I have explained above why it is that we translate 'ousia' that way. This really should not be difficult to understand by this point, except perhaps philosophically due to prejudices inherited from Mormonism which no one here has any control over.

So, again, if you say that they are of the same divinity (as you have lately taken to saying), you are saying that they are homoousios. That is inescapable, at least within a Christian context. I of course grant that Mormons have their own tradition, but I can't and won't argue from it. Let's not forget our proper boundaries.
 
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dzheremi

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Still making my way through this, however two thoughts, dzheremi:

1) Yes, "substance"/"essence" is referring to "divinity". It isn't referring to matter or something that God is "made out of", as some Mormons seem to think.

Yes. Of course then the trouble is that when you cannot use substance/essence (ousia) as your definition because your interlocutor objects to it due to what they think it means, you are then stuck saying exactly that "it is about that of which they are composed", as I just had to type (and believe me, I was shaking my head in disappointment the whole time; this is how the likes of Nestorius, Paul of Samosata, and Ibas the Persian got started -- ugh!). This is precisely why our fathers used such a vague term in the first place -- it is perfect due to its 'undefineability', as it is impossible to describe with accuracy in language what someone's essence is, and all the more so when we are discussing God.

And yet here we are! :( When someone thinks that only matter matters (ow), what can you do? Simply repeat the same thing, I guess: homoousios = same divinty = same essence/substance.

It is important to understand the terminology as it is understood by those who use it, and not import a false understanding to the word, as seems to be going on here.

Amen to that.

2) It is very curious how this whole "scripture-only" argument always comes up eventually to limit the conversation. I'm not sure why it is, when jane doe should know that Orthodox and Catholics do not subscribe to a Bible-only view, and such a view isn't even found in the Bible itself anyway! Catholics and Orthodox do not believe that God's Revelation is limited to the Bible, nor even to written words. Something doesn't have to be in the Bible for it to be true or God-given, and if it does, than jane doe needs to cite the specific verse that indicates that needs to be the case.

I would hope that it is enough to point out how inconsistent and untenable this is, as I believe I have done or at least tried to do, but maybe only after some study would it be obvious as to why that is the case, so maybe you're on to something here.

She seems to be under the impression that if something isn't in scripture (noting that for us, "scripture"=the Bible), then it is merely man made. We don't subscribe to that view, even though she may.

Which is fine. I don't begrudge Mormons anything, though I certainly refuse to argue like one.
 
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Jane_Doe

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(***Since we've both established that neither of us are aiming here to convert each other, I'm going to take a step back and focus on friendly interfaith dialogue and understanding, rather than pointless bickering. Really we should have never gotten off that track, but alas we are petty sinners. You have my deep personal apology in that regard, I can be very sinfully petty and pointlessly argumentative, and have been so here the last couple of posts. I shall try (again) to resist that temptation and make this a more productive conversation. ***)

I acknowledge your belief in Tradition in being authoritative, and thank you for your thorough and honest responses here. I also appreciate the historical context you include.

As we've talked about previously, LDS do not acknowledge Tradition as authoritative. We do acknowledge the Bible as authoritative. Hence whether or not something is in the Bible is very important to LDS. We do acknowledge the shared divinity of Christ and the Father. Their substance is simply not a subject in LDS beliefs.

Addressing your questions the best I can--
Okay...'deed' is another word for action, but okay. :) Since you have added at least something internal (thought, desires...'heart', I suppose in some metaphorical sense somewhat akin to essence?), I think we have something we can work with here.
I am glad we've made a connection here :). That is much better.
So we could just as easily say coessential, as that is a word (yes, spell check...I don't care that you just underlined it; it is!),
(I'm just pulling this part aside for a minute because of the abundant chuckles you've given me!)
Follow up questions: if He is united with the Father in these internal aspects. is there anything that keeps Mormons from saying that He is of the same essence as the Father? Because the translation "essence/substance" is a concession in English to the fact that this is both a purposefully vague translation (since it is not possible to grasp the essence of God, or even of any random person, through language), and that the Greek word homoousios, when translated into English via Latin, is best translated as 'consubstantial', since that is the equivalent of the word in Latin. So we could just as easily say coessential, as that is a word (yes, spell check...I don't care that you just underlined it; it is!), were it not for the fact that ousia in the original encompasses both substance and essence. So these are taken to be equivalent in Christianity, keeping in mind that we have established at the outset that we are in no way talking about physical matter or any of its properties (mass, space, volume, etc), but rather the divine essence which is shared by all three Persons of the Trinity.
This discussion is not part of LDS theology. If you would perhaps like to use some other words, we could perhaps cross the translation gap, and I could better address your questions.
To say that they are homoousios is most definitely not saying that they are the same Person! We are not modalists, God forbid.
Clarifying here: I did not mean to imply that you were a modalist at all. I was simply listing traits about Christ .
So, again, if you say that they are of the same divinity (as you have lately taken to saying), you are saying that they are homoousios.
Seeking clarification here--
You have thoroughly said here that the "substance" you are referring to in your doctrine is not just the physical 'stuff' (pardon my lack of better word choice). Could your doctrine be understood in terms where there is no physical comments at all? Just things like heart/mind/desire?
 
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dzheremi

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(***Since we've both established that neither of us are aiming here to convert each other, I'm going to take a step back and focus on friendly interfaith dialogue and understanding, rather than pointless bickering. Really we should have never gotten off that track, but alas we are petty sinners. You have my deep personal apology in that regard, I can be very sinfully petty and pointlessly argumentative, and have been so here the last couple of posts. I shall try (again) to resist that temptation and make this a more productive conversation. ***)

Thanks. No need to apologize. I'm not offended in the slightest. It's just a matter that I must argue in accordance with my faith, whether or not the aim is to convert someone (which it isn't; I don't have any illusions of being some great apologist or missionary; I really am just some guy). And because I must argue in accordance with my faith, I try to take the time to explain why I use this or that term and not another, why a certain analogy can only be taken so far, and so on. Especially as an Oriental Orthodox person, I see it as a duty to try to do so as clearly and exhaustively as I can in this format, since I know there are not many of us, and basically all the rest of Christianity disagrees with us in matters of Christology. (This is again why I would never appeal to some kind of majority rule, as I recognize that I am not in the majority. There are some 90 million or so Oriental Orthodox, in comparison to maybe 300 million Eastern Orthodox, 800 million Protestants, and 1.3 billion Catholics. The argument concerning the Creed is one of content, as always.)

As we've talked about previously, LDS do not acknowledge Tradition as authoritative. We do acknowledge the Bible as authoritative.

For my own clarification: in the LDS faith, the Bible is taken as something separate from tradition, then? What about the BOM, D&C, POGP? Are they considered likewise?

Hence whether or not something is in the Bible is very important to LDS. We do acknowledge the shared divinity of Christ and the Father. Their substance is simply not a subject in LDS beliefs.

I understand. Again, I recognize that LDS and Christians have different understandings of what 'substance' means, with the LDS taking it to mean physical matter (according to you and Peter1000 in the other thread, that is). This is not what we mean at all when we say that the Persons of the Holy Trinity are homoousios, because ousia does not have anything to do with physical matter. I must've written that 50 times to Peter1000 in the older thread, but maybe that was too long ago to be remembered clearly, or maybe it has been missed in all the times I've said the same thing here (i.e, the 'ousia' that they share is the divinity).

This discussion is not part of LDS theology. If you would perhaps like to use some other words, we could perhaps cross the translation gap, and I could better address your questions.

Well, no, actually. That's part of the issue, as I wrote in my reply to NYCGuy: when you stop using the words that are traditional to your faith to describe your theology, you end up with things that are less accurate and more prone to misunderstanding than they should be. So rather than say something less accurate than it should be, I would rather continue to use ousia, as that is what is traditional to my own Church and its faith. In fact, in Coptic, we did not translate this word at all -- it remains in our hymns as 'homoousios', as in the hymn "Khen efran", which simply says "In the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit, the holy coequal Trinity [Coptic: ti-Trias ethowab en-omoousios]: worthy, worthy, worthy (is) the Holy Virgin Mary; worthy, worthy, worthy (are) Thy servants, the Christians." (That's the entire thing.)

The problem is, of course, that Christians who are not of a Greek or Coptic background probably will not know what that means, since again, in Latin the same term (homoousios) got translated as consubstantial, which is not transparently/phonetically related to homoousios, so you'd have to know something of the Greek language to know how they relate to each other and why.

So while other words can be used, I'm afraid they don't make talking about this any easier. I think it is better -- given what we've hashed out regarding why the Mormon religion insists that they are of the same divinity and yet not homoousios (read: the Mormon equation of substance with physical matter), despite this being literally impossible in Christianity -- to probably restrict my English usage to coessential rather than anything more broad, despite the possible range of meanings of 'ousia' in English. Because, again, in Christianity in particular, coessential and consubstantial mean the same thing, thus to use one is to affirm both. So if it will make my posts easier to read and understand, that's what I'll use. (NB: I'm in no sense dropping the defense of both, only seeking to limit the amount of time we'll have to spend talking about what it doesn't mean, as well as the potential for confusion among LDS posters given the Mormon-specific meaning of 'substance', which is not what we are talking about.)

Clarifying here: I did not mean to imply that you were a modalist at all. I was simply listing traits about Christ .

I understand. I didn't mean to imply that you were accusing Christians of being modalists. I only wrote that to make clear that the people who would confuse the Persons are the various modalist groups who claim that all three Persons are but 'modes' of the same Person (e.g., the Sabellians of the past, or the Unitarians of today like Oneness Pentecostals). That's modalism. As homoousios has nothing to do with their individuation as Persons, this is not what it addresses.

Seeking clarification here--
You have thoroughly said here that the "substance" you are referring to in your doctrine is not just the physical 'stuff' (pardon my lack of better word choice) Could your doctrine be understood in terms where there is no physical comments at all? Just things like heart/mind/desire?

Have I not written that over and over? That ousia does not have anything to do with physical matter? I thought I had, but maybe I was not clear enough somehow. Anyway, yes, to say that the Persons of the Holy Trinity are homoousios is not at all a comment about physical matter. It has nothing to do with physical matter. It is an affirmation of their sharing of the divinity -- the divine essence, not some kind of divine physical matter (we don't have any such doctrine, though from what I know about Mormon cosmology and the rejection of creation ex nihilo, it seems that you guys do; this probably adds to our talking past each other).

Hopefully a purposely not-God example will make it clear what is meant and not meant, because the same thing that stops us from talking with absolute precision regarding God's essence also applies to talking about regular people's essences, too:

Say I want to talk about a random person, let's call him 'John'.

If I want to talk about John, what kinds of things can I say, and on what basis might I say them?

If John is my friend, I might say "John is kind", and if pressed for what exactly I mean, I'd probably list examples of John demonstrating the virtue of kindness: he volunteers at a soup kitchen; he helps old ladies across the street; he lent me $50 once, and still hasn't asked for it back despite the fact that this was five years ago (NB: John is a fictional person and I am not a mooch), etc.

In all of this, have I said anything about John's essence -- that is to say, who he is in himself? No. I can talk about how he acts in the world. I can show you these things as a demonstration of how kind John is, but I cannot look at another person, no matter how well I know them, and say "this is John's essence". It's not possible to put into words. John's essence is within him as himself and is unique to him by virtue of who he is, not to the exclusion of what he does, but not as the sum of it either.

So it is not a matter of the magnitude of ones unity or purity of action that might begin to speak of their essence as being something unique to them, because while it is true that it is unique to them, it is also something that we can not define by such externalities, even though they're literally all that we can know by looking at the physical world and their actions within it. This is precisely why ousia does not have anything to do with physical matter. It is purely internal, because everyone's essence is something that they possess of themselves internally, and in that sense (and only that sense, to the exclusion of any talk about physical matter) is 'what they are made of'.

And it is in this way that we say that the Persons of the Holy Trinity, Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, are homoousios: they share in the one divinity that is common to all of them by virtue of who they are, and not because of a unity of action or thought or 'desire' (whatever this means in reference to God).
 
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