Does God grant faith, repentance and belief? Or does man do it on his own?

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CmRoddy

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what a great OP.. I am still reading it and studying what you have written.

Thank you! I appreciate the kind words. Just to let you know, I updated what I had written under Ephesians 2:8-9 with a more detailed explanation that will be more helpful.
 
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Calminian

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Hey, CmRoddy, I'm not sure if you realize this, but the fact that you're using the word grant, instead of gives, is actually a concession to the arminian side of the argument. Grant implies opportunity or choice. You may want to change the title.
 
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CmRoddy

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Hey, CmRoddy, I'm not sure if you realize this, but the fact that you're using the word grant, instead of gives, is actually a concession to the arminian side of the argument. Grant implies opportunity or choice. You may want to change the title.

Hello, Calminian

I used "grant" because it can have several different meanings. I also used it because Phil. 1:29 uses it. But Eph. 2:8-9 implies gives.
 
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Calminian

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Hello, Calminian

I used "grant" because it can have several different meanings. I also used it because Phil. 1:29 uses it. But Eph. 2:8-9 implies gives.

And it's interesting that generally all translations use the english word "granted" in the Philippian passage. It's primary meaning is to consent, allow, permit, give the right privilege, etc.

a: to consent to carry out for a person : allow fulfillment of <grant a request> b: to permit as a right, privilege, or favor <luggage allowances granted to passengers>

Arminians content God grants faith. Calvinists content he gives it. At best it leaves a slight possibility for your case. At worse in refutes it.

Eph. 2:8-9 speaks of grace through faith as a gift. As you know, gifts can be rejected. And in the bible we often see gifts being rejected, which was a grievous insult in ANE culture. I'm assuming you're angling for the doctrine of irresistible or efficacious grace. If that's the case, both the words, gift and granted work against you.
 
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Does God grant faith, repentance and belief? Or does man do it on his own?

This is a big subject that needs to be addressed. Some will say that God is the one who grants salvation to His people and others say that God made people savable but it is up to the individual person to choose. Could the Calvinist view be correct? Is it possible that God only grants repentance and faith to some and not others? Or is the Arminian view of the autonomy of man correct? Well, let’s look at some Scripture to figure this out.

Some Arminians point to Romans 4:5 and they say that Abraham was the one who believed (once again exalting man). They will say that his belief was "counted to him as righteousness before God. Well, we wholeheartedly agree because that is what Romans 4:5 says. But is it safe to assume that Abraham believed as a result of his own will or was it God working in him? The Arminian might also point to verses like “But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in His name” (John 1:12), "If it is disagreeable in your sight to serve the LORD, choose for yourselves today whom you will serve: whether the gods which your fathers served which were beyond the River, or the gods of the Amorites in whose land you are living; but as for me and my house, we will serve the LORD" (Joshua 24:15), and “So then, my beloved, just as you have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your salvation with fear and trembling” (Philippians 2:12). But do these really mean that man chooses out of his own free will? Do these (and others used by Arminians) teach that God gives people the choice? As Calvin said, "Interpret Scripture with Scripture” and that is exactly what we should do.

For now, let’s assume that it was Abraham's work. If you read Genesis, you could possibly come to that conclusion. But, if one keeps on reading through the Bible, one will find a whole different meaning. One gets to 2 Chronicles 30:6-12 and you see that God, through Hezekiah, was calling the people to repentance and to "return to the LORD God... that He may return to you." Let's look at the passage.

2 Chronicles 30:6-12 (NASB)
6The couriers went throughout all Israel and Judah with the letters from the hand of the king and his princes, even according to the command of the king, saying, "O sons of Israel, return to the LORD God of Abraham, Isaac and Israel, that He may return to those of you who escaped and are left from the hand of the kings of Assyria.
7"Do not be like your fathers and your brothers, who were unfaithful to the LORD God of their fathers, so that He made them a horror, as you see.
8"Now do not stiffen your neck like your fathers, but yield to the LORD and enter His sanctuary which He has consecrated forever, and serve the LORD your God, that His burning anger may turn away from you.
9"For if you return to the LORD, your brothers and your sons will find compassion before those who led them captive and will return to this land For the LORD your God is gracious and compassionate, and will not turn His face away from you if you return to Him."
10So the couriers passed from city to city through the country of Ephraim and Manasseh, and as far as Zebulun, but they laughed them to scorn and mocked them.
11Nevertheless some men of Asher, Manasseh and Zebulun humbled themselves and came to Jerusalem.
12The hand of God was also on Judah to give them one heart to do what the king and the princes commanded by the word of the LORD.

So the people in v. 10 " laughed them to scorn and mocked them" and they did not repent. However, we see in v. 11 that "some men" humbled themselves and went to Jerusalem. But v. 12 changes everything. Look at what it says closely; "The hand of God was also on Judah to give them one heart to do what the king and the princes commanded by the word of the LORD."

The "also" in v. 12 clues us in to the fact that God's hand was what enabled the men in v. 11 to return to Jerusalem. There is no denying that. So we see in the OT that God commands something from His people, but He also grants what He commands. We see conditional statements being made all the time, but based on this verse and others, one should never assume that God commands something from us and leaves us to fulfill that command.

Now, one may say "But that is only one passage." Actually, we don't believe it is. In fact, we think there are a lot more that teach that God is the one who grants repentance and faith in people. Let's look at a few of them.

Deuteronomy 5:29 (NASB)
'Oh that they had such a heart in them, that they would fear Me and keep all My commandments always, that it may be well with them and with their sons forever!

Now, the literal translation says "who will give them such a heart". We again see that the heart will be given to them in order to fear God and keep His commandments.

Deuteronomy 29:2-4 (NASB)
2And Moses summoned all Israel and said to them, "You have seen all that the LORD did before your eyes in the land of Egypt to Pharaoh and all his servants and all his land;
3the great trials which your eyes have seen, those great signs and wonders.
4"Yet to this day the LORD has not given you a heart to know, nor eyes to see, nor ears to hear.

V. 4 is the key in this passage. Moses is talking to the people of Israel and says that God “has not given you [them] a heart to know, nor eyes to see, nor ears to hear." Once again, the ability to know, see, and hear are given by God.

Deuteronomy 30:5-6 (NASB)
5"The LORD your God will bring you into the land which your fathers possessed, and you shall possess it; and He will prosper you and multiply you more than your fathers.
6"Moreover the LORD your God will circumcise your heart and the heart of your descendants, to love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul, so that you may live.

V. 5 talks about God bringing Israel into the land of their fathers. However, v. 6 is key. It says that God will be the one to circumcise their hearts "to love the LORD your [their] God." Again we see God commanding what He will and granting what He commands.

Jeremiah 32:38-40 (NASB)
38"They shall be My people, and I will be their God;
39and I will give them one heart and one way, that they may fear Me always, for their own good and for the good of their children after them.
40"I will make an everlasting covenant with them that I will not turn away from them, to do them good; and I will put the fear of Me in their hearts so that they will not turn away from Me.

Here we have a tremendous passage on this subject. V. 38 is something God will accomplish, not simply make possible. It doesn't say "I will probably be their God." No, it says "Theyshall be my people, and I will be their God." V. 39 is another example of God "giving them one heart and one way, that they may fear Me [God] always." For what reason? "For their own good." Now v. 40 says that God will make an everlasting covenant with them and God "will put the fear" of Him in their hearts "so that they will not turn away" from Him. Once again we see God commanding what He wills and granting what He commands.

Ezekiel 11:19-20 (NASB)
19"And I will give them one heart, and put a new spirit within them And I will take the heart of stone out of their flesh and give them a heart of flesh,
20that they may walk in My statutes and keep My ordinances and do them Then they will be My people, and I shall be their God.

Both verses speak clearly on this subject. God is saying in v. 19 that He "will give them one heart, and put a new spirit within them." This is referring to regeneration. God takes out the "heart of stone" and gives them a "heart of flesh." What is the reason for doing this? What will result? Well, v. 20 tells us "that they may walk in My statutes and keep My ordinances and do them." Walking in the statutes of God and keeping His commands are the result of being given a heart of flesh, not the other way around. And we also see the same thing in v. 20 here as in the Jeremiah passage above. "They will be My people, and I shall be their God." It doesn't say "maybe" or "possibly" or "perhaps".

There you go again quoting LB. Have you heard the term the blind leading the blind? Dogs run in packs, cattle stampede in herds, fish swim in schools, water runs down stream, hot air raises, etc. and RT Calvinist follow RT / Calvinist: Now is that a revelation or what? Did the light come on? :idea: or are you confussed :mmh:
 
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CmRoddy

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There you go again quoting LB. Have you heard the term the blind leading the blind? Dogs run in packs, cattle stampede in herds, fish swim in schools, water runs down stream, hot air raises, etc. and RT Calvinist follow RT / Calvinist: Now is that a revelation or what? Did the light come on? :idea: or are you confussed :mmh:

You were refuted on CARM and you will be refuted here.

You still haven't answer my question on Ephesians 2:8-9. You said that faith isn't a gift, but Ephesians 2 says it is. Can you explain yourself?
 
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heymikey80

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And it's interesting that generally all translations use the english word "granted" in the Philippian passage. It's primary meaning is to consent, allow, permit, give the right privilege, etc.

a: to consent to carry out for a person : allow fulfillment of <grant a request> b: to permit as a right, privilege, or favor <luggage allowances granted to passengers>

Arminians content God grants faith. Calvinists content he gives it. At best it leaves a slight possibility for your case. At worse in refutes it.

Eph. 2:8-9 speaks of grace through faith as a gift. As you know, gifts can be rejected. And in the bible we often see gifts being rejected, which was a grievous insult in ANE culture. I'm assuming you're angling for the doctrine of irresistible or efficacious grace. If that's the case, both the words, gift and granted work against you.
Actually the arminian attempt would be to establish that God grants the ability to believe. Were God to grant belief itself, then the person would have belief.

Just as luggage allowances are granted. If an airline granted luggage to all its passengers then all its passengers would have luggage.
 
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Hammster

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There you go again quoting LB. Have you heard the term the blind leading the blind? Dogs run in packs, cattle stampede in herds, fish swim in schools, water runs down stream, hot air raises, etc. and RT Calvinist follow RT / Calvinist: Now is that a revelation or what? Did the light come on? :idea: or are you confussed :mmh:



Is that all you have anymore? That wasn't even close to a refutation. Your arguments were much better before you went to CARM. Now you don't even have any.
 
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LamorakDesGalis

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Mmm, here, not so sure. Sure, God works through second causes. But the cause of repentance and faith doesn't come from the individual, left to himself.

Not so sure?? Where is the connection of faith and repentance with the individual? God doesn't repent for the individual. God doesn't believe for the individual. And God does not override the person's will.

When a person remains in unbelief, they are held responsible by God. Responsibility implies choice - it implies second cause. Historic Calvinists affirm both God's sovereignty AND human responsibility:

Westminster Confession:
I. God from all eternity did by the most wise and holy counsel of his own will, freely and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass; yet so as thereby neither is God the author of sin; nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures, nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established.

John Flavel:
Coming to Christ notes the voluntariness of the soul in its motion to Christ. It is true, there is no coming without the Father's drawing; but that drawing has nothing of coaction in it; it does not destroy, but powerfully, and with an overcoming sweetness, persuade the will. It is not forced or driven, but it comes; being made "willing in the day of God's power"...

I suppose no one is disturbed to see that the resident Hyper-Calvinist agrees with the OP. Overreacting toward one error often leads to another.


LDG
 
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LamorakDesGalis

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You were refuted on CARM and you will be refuted here.

You still haven't answer my question on Ephesians 2:8-9. You said that faith isn't a gift, but Ephesians 2 says it is. Can you explain yourself?

No, Ephesians 2:8-9 does not refer to faith as a gift. The gender of "this" and "faith" are different in the Greek. "This" refers to the concept of salvation by grace through faith.


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CmRoddy

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No, Ephesians 2:8-9 does not refer to faith as a gift. The gender of "this" and "faith" are different in the Greek. "This" refers to the concept of salvation by grace through faith.


LDG

By your logic, none of the first part is a gift because "that" is a neuter while "grace", "salvation", and "faith" are either feminine or masculine.

Ephesians. 2:8-9 (ESV)
8 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, 9 not a result of works, so that no one may boast.
By grace refers to God's favor upon those who have transgressed his law and sinned against him. But grace may also be understood as a &#8220;power&#8221; in these verses. God's grace not only offers salvation but also secures it. Saved refers to deliverance from God's wrath at the final judgment (Rom. 5:9); &#8220;by grace you have been saved&#8221; is repeated from Eph. 2:5 for emphasis. The verb form for &#8220;have been saved&#8221; (Gk. ses&#333;smenoi, perfect tense) communicates that the Christian's salvation is fully secured.
through faith. Faith is a confident trust and reliance upon Christ Jesus and is the only means by which one can obtain salvation.
this. The Greek pronoun is neuter, while &#8220;grace&#8221; and &#8220;faith&#8221; are feminine. Accordingly, &#8220;this&#8221; points to the whole process of &#8220;salvation by grace through faith&#8221; as being the gift of God and not something that we can accomplish ourselves. This use of the neuter pronoun to take in the whole of a complex idea is quite common in Greek (e.g., 6:1); its use here makes it clear that faith, no less than grace, is a gift of God. Salvation, therefore, in every respect, is not your own doing.
Source: ESV Study Bible

Any Greek scholar can see this.

Let me give you another source. This one from The Potter's Freedom by James White.

Ephesians 2:8-9 (NASB)
8For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God;
9not as a result of works, so that no one may boast.
"The Greek term for "that" is the neuter singular demonstrative pronoun. The basic rule of thumb is to look for a singular neuter noun in the immediate context as the antecedent of the pronoun. Yet, there are no neuter singular nouns in the first phrase of Ephesians 2:8. "Grace" is feminine singular; "have been saved" is a masculine participle; "faith" is feminine singular. So to what does "that" refer?
The simple answer is: the entirety of the phrase "for by grace you have been saved through faith." It is good Greek grammar to use a neutral pronoun to "wrap up" a phrase or a series of thoughts into a single whole. Paul's point is that the entirety of the work of salvation does not find its basis in men but in God: true salvation is the gift of God, not a work of man. All of it is free, all of it is divine, not human" (White 295-296).
As can be plainly seen based on the Greek grammar, the entire first part of Eph. 2:8 is a gift. The grace and salvation are just as much a gift as the faith that man practices.
 
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heymikey80

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Not so sure?? Where is the connection of faith and repentance with the individual? God doesn't repent for the individual. God doesn't believe for the individual. And God does not override the person's will.
Yeh, people believe, people repent, people will. But for what cause: not so sure.

  • Persons do not thereby exercise autonomy. They aren't conferred the power to rightly exercise sinful directions.
  • If God didn't change something about the person's will, to where he's now desiring something he didn't used to desire -- then the will would not be changed.
  • I also worry that if we don't consider the role of our union with Christ that is so critical to our salvation and pervasive throughout Scripture, then the individual essentially becomes much more highly considered than "Christ in us, the hope of glory."
Those are the honest reasons why I'm not so sure. The personal responsibility certainly has to be there. But it's a worry for me whether individuality gets too much credit for what God does in us, and what God is permitted to do through our reliance on Him. The lines get blurred.
When a person remains in unbelief, they are held responsible by God. Responsibility implies choice - it implies second cause. Historic Calvinists affirm both God's sovereignty AND human responsibility:

Westminster Confession:
I. God from all eternity did by the most wise and holy counsel of his own will, freely and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass; yet so as thereby neither is God the author of sin; nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures, nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established.

John Flavel:
Coming to Christ notes the voluntariness of the soul in its motion to Christ. It is true, there is no coming without the Father's drawing; but that drawing has nothing of coaction in it; it does not destroy, but powerfully, and with an overcoming sweetness, persuade the will. It is not forced or driven, but it comes; being made "willing in the day of God's power"...

I suppose no one is disturbed to see that the resident Hyper-Calvinist agrees with the OP. Overreacting toward one error often leads to another.
Sure, there's individual responsibility for unbelief, and there's persuasion as well as conversion. But we're utterly dependent on their being shared responsibility for sin; so it would bother me to assert that our responsibility in faith and repentance is somehow unshared, at least. Semi-Pelagians even hold to shared responsibility here; even the Roman Catholic position (slightly less even than semi-Pelagianism) has a shared responsibility. Calvinists hold to a much larger share -- a full bearing of responsibility for our sin, through grace -- going over to God in Christ. There's an unusual kind of calculation at work, in union.

It's really along this line that you can see differences in the theologies, yes. Hypercalvinism tends to bottom-out this responsibility completely, when Calvinism tends to point to responsibility as a result of God's work, and an instrument of His saving application more than a cause.
 
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LamorakDesGalis

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By your logic, none of the first part is a gift because "that" is a neuter while "grace", "salvation", and "faith" are either feminine or masculine.

No, that's not how Greek grammar works. In Greek touto - this - commonly takes a conceptual antecedent. In this verse it refers to the whole phrase salvation by grace through faith. "Grace" and "faith" are the other potential antecedents, but very unlikely because they are feminine while touto is neuter.

Ephesians. 2:8-9 (ESV)
8 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, 9 not a result of works, so that no one may boast.
By grace refers to God's favor upon those who have transgressed his law and sinned against him. But grace may also be understood as a “power” in these verses. God's grace not only offers salvation but also secures it. Saved refers to deliverance from God's wrath at the final judgment (Rom. 5:9); “by grace you have been saved” is repeated from Eph. 2:5 for emphasis. The verb form for “have been saved” (Gk. ses&#333;smenoi, perfect tense) communicates that the Christian's salvation is fully secured.
through faith. Faith is a confident trust and reliance upon Christ Jesus and is the only means by which one can obtain salvation.
this. The Greek pronoun is neuter, while “grace” and “faith” are feminine. Accordingly, “this” points to the whole process of “salvation by grace through faith” as being the gift of God and not something that we can accomplish ourselves. This use of the neuter pronoun to take in the whole of a complex idea is quite common in Greek (e.g., 6:1); its use here makes it clear that faith, no less than grace, is a gift of God. Salvation, therefore, in every respect, is not your own doing.
Source: ESV Study Bible

Any Greek scholar can see this.

No - ESV footnotes are not the original Greek. The ESV note on Ephesians 2:8 "this" overstates its case; they want to have their cake and eat it too. One cannot make the Greek "this" refer to the concept of the whole process AND distribute it to all the individual "parts" (grace, faith). "This" refers to one antecedent, not three. Check Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics.


Let me give you another source. This one from The Potter's Freedom by James White.

Ephesians 2:8-9 (NASB)
8For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God;
9not as a result of works, so that no one may boast.
"The Greek term for "that" is the neuter singular demonstrative pronoun. The basic rule of thumb is to look for a singular neuter noun in the immediate context as the antecedent of the pronoun. Yet, there are no neuter singular nouns in the first phrase of Ephesians 2:8. "Grace" is feminine singular; "have been saved" is a masculine participle; "faith" is feminine singular. So to what does "that" refer?
The simple answer is: the entirety of the phrase "for by grace you have been saved through faith." It is good Greek grammar to use a neutral pronoun to "wrap up" a phrase or a series of thoughts into a single whole. Paul's point is that the entirety of the work of salvation does not find its basis in men but in God: true salvation is the gift of God, not a work of man. All of it is free, all of it is divine, not human" (White 295-296).
As can be plainly seen based on the Greek grammar, the entire first part of Eph. 2:8 is a gift. The grace and salvation are just as much a gift as the faith that man practices.

All of what White said is fine except the last paragraph, which like the ESV note, he then overstates the case. Again, we are looking at one antecedent - not three.

There are certain assumptions going on here as well. Paul never calls faith a "work" - in fact with regard to justification he contrasts faith with the works of the law. We really get back to the questions I originally asked that were never answered -what is the nature of faith?


LDG
 
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cygnusx1

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why do you suppose there is hostility towards Christians and the Gospel (when it is truly preached ) why is it , that the Gospel message , seeing as it is so wonderful and life giving is not accepted by even the majority , why do the majority of sinners reject Christ , and only a small minority of mankind recognise , realise and willingly submit to the reign of Christ ?



You can tell me nothing about the flesh and it's power that I am not fully aware of ........... even in the Christian there is left a nature that is at war with God ......... that loves sin and hates righteousness and prefers darkness to light , that is not in subjection to God and His law , that is willfull , ignorant , repugnant and more stubborn than a mule ............ and that is in THE CHRISTIAN!!!!

So where does that leave the unregenerate! ............ in total darkness and at war with God , in a dispicable place , hostile in mind and deed , and without purity , good conscience and in desperate need of Grace.
 
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