Reluctant Theologian
אַבְרָהָם
- Jul 13, 2021
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The motives are the same for all (Biblical Truth), but the opinions on how to get there and translation principles differ. The translators of most modern translations (at least those for ESV/NASB/LSB/CJB/YLT/CLV/NIV/CSB/NLT/NET) only use the Hebrew for that verse (and the immediate context) as their source - so in all these translations 'a' is used.My motives are Biblical Truth. It’s not that I prefer “the” over “a” its what its referring to. To my point, can you please show me through Scripture where there is more than one Sabbath at Creation? Or that in the Sabbath commandment its referring to any other Sabbath other than the weekly Sabbath that started at Creation?
The KJV (and thus also the NKJV, and also the modern MEV/RSV) follow the Vulgate (Latin translation from 5th century) in using 'the' - that was the standard Bible for the church for more than a 1000 years. And other older translations like the Geneva Bible and Tyndale also follow the Vulgate tradition.
The question whether at Creation or in the Creation history at that point only the 7th day Sabbath/rest/stop was known is irrelevant to the translators of that long list of modern English translation (and I share their translation principles). By the time of Exodus 20 the other Sabbath periods were also introduced - and the text was written much later. It would be good you at least recognise the principles used, although you're free to disagree of course. Those translators (and I) cannot inject a 'the' into the translation when the source Hebrew is unambigously omitting it (for Exodus 20:8). I don't prefer translations that try to smoothen out any supposed inconsistenties or unnecessarily inject a theological viewpoint.
Be blessed sister!
(I consider my contribution to this thread finalised as all viewpoints have been shared.)
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