So God didn't CREATE evil, He only creates good things.
But where His goodness is rejected an ABSENCE of goodness is created, and the ABSENCE of goodness is called evil...
I would like to know your thoughts about this...
I'm asked the following question regularly...
"How can God be both all-good and the creator of everything when He has also created the evil things of this world?..."
Before I get into my response, let me just first make an observation which I think gets to the heart of the question posed. As Christians, when we are asked questions of this nature, we often feel pressure to apologize for God, to defend Him. I would be lying if I said I had never felt this pressure myself. But the more I have gotten to know my Father, and the more time I have spent in fellowship with Him and in the study of His Word, the more I have come to understand this simple truth: Father does not
NEED anyone to defend Him. He makes no apologies for Who He is, and neither should we.
The first verse that naturally popped into my head when I saw the question posed in the thread's title is Isaiah 45:7, to which I see a number of posters have already made reference. Let's take a look at said verse, because taken verbatim in its KJV translation, it pointedly and specifically answers the question:
I am always astounded at Father's perfect and precise use of words in His...err...Word.
For example, I love that the FIRST word He employs in ^ that verse is H3335. <-Because that word, which occurs 62 times, is the same word that is translated "potter" in verses like Isaiah 29:16:
or better yet:
IOW,
Where were YOU when I laid the foundations of the earth? lol [Job 38:4]
OK, so let's get down to brass tacks. Father uses the same word vis a vis DARKNESS and EVIL in Is. 45:7: H1254. But He uses a different word, H6213, wrt the word translated "peace". Why? <-Hopefully I'll get to that, but for now I think it's important to stay with the word translated "create" twice in ^ that verse.
H1254 occurs just 54 times in the Old Testament, and guess where Father FIRST uses it?
Why, in the very FIRST verse, and in the context of His ENTIRE
creation. So that there would be NO misunderstanding, no hemming, hawing, vacillating, & equivocating.
Did my Father "create evil"? You betcha He did. He makes neither bones nor apologies about it. Unlike us, He does not equivocate.
And as if to further cement this fact, Father uses H1254 THRICE in Genesis 1:27 wrt His creation of man, whose heart is desperately wicked and "
deceitful above all things" (Jer. 17:9). H7451, the word translated "evil", occurs a whopping 663 times (Hmm. interesting number, <-that; think John 6:63, but I digress...perhaps), and its first occurrence is in Genesis 2:9 to refer to the "
tree of knowledge of good and evil", which Father "
made...to grow" in the midst of the Garden of Eden.
Consider this, though, just as kind of pablum for pontification: did we not know evil, how could we possibly possess the perspective to know how awesomely, wonderfully GOOD Father is? Or how necessary, and yet how positively
PERFECT His plan of salvation to deliver us
from it, and from our own inclination
toward it?
Blessings
IN Christ.