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Is believing/faith a work ?

Brightfame52

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Why does Jesus tell you to keep his commandments?

"If you love me, you will keep my commandments." (John 14:15).

Will you do what Jesus asks of you - keep his commandments - or will you ignore him?
He was specifically speaking to His disciples, and they were already saved when He spake that to them. And all for whom Christ lived and died for, in Him, they are righteous and keep all commandments.
 
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Buzzard3

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He was specifically speaking to His disciples,
Well, let's extend your logic - a couple of verses later (v.17), when Jesus said
"you know him, for he dwells with you, and will be in you",
he was only referring to the disciples.

Why was it only to the disciples that Jesus said, "If you love me, you will keep my commandments" (John 14:25)?
and they were already saved when He spake that to them. And all for whom Christ lived and died for, in Him, they are righteous and keep all commandments
If they were already saved, why did Jesus say to them, "If you love me, you will keep my commandments" (John 14:25)?
 
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Brightfame52

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Well, let's extend your logic - a couple of verses later (v.17), when Jesus said
"you know him, for he dwells with you, and will be in you",
he was only referring to the disciples.

Why was it only to the disciples that Jesus said, "If you love me, you will keep my commandments" (John 14:25)?

If they were already saved, why did Jesus say to them, "If you love me, you will keep my commandments" (John 14:25)?
Yes they were already saved, clean, Justified Jn 13:10-11

Jesus saith to him, He that is washed needeth not save to wash his feet, but is clean every whit: and ye are clean, but not all.


For he knew who should betray him; therefore said he, Ye are not all clean.

Jn 15:3

Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you.

Saved people obey Gods commands not in order to get saved, but because they are saved, and they are motivated by love, grace and gratitude.

They are already saved, righteous, clean by free gift.

Now do you know who Jesus is in Jn 14:15 ? Please tell me who He is and what He has done ?
 
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Buzzard3

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They are already saved, righteous, clean by free gift.
If they are already saved and clean, why did Jesus tell them to keep his commandments? (John 14:15)
Saved people obey Gods commands not in order to get saved, but because they are saved, and they are motivated by love, grace and gratitude.
So you're saying, if you're not doing works, that means you aren't saved.
 
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Dan2255

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The answer is absolutely yes. If we agree with the overall definition of work according to the greek word for work ergon:

See strongs # 2041:

  1. business, employment, that which any one is occupied
    1. that which one undertakes to do, enterprise, undertaking
  2. any product whatever, any thing accomplished by hand, art, industry, or mind


  3. an act, deed, thing done: the idea of working is emphasised in opp. to that which is less than work

    A work is anything done, accomplished by #1 hand, #2 art, #3 industry, #4 or MIND

    The mind is :

    (in a human or other conscious being) the element, part, substance, or process that reasons, thinks, feels, wills, perceives, judges, etc.

    Psychology. the totality of conscious and unconscious mental processes and activities.

    So believing something via the mental activity and process of reasoning is work. The process of decision making is a activity, work of the mind.

    Now for instance, the sin of hatred Gal 5:19-20


    Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,


    20 Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies,

    How is that sin committed ? It starts in the mind or heart ! Yet in Vs 19 its stated as an work of the flesh

    So activity in and with the mind/heart is a work, this cannot be denied..

    Now believing is either a work of the flesh [unregenerate] or of the Spirit [ regenerated]

    But now Salvation is not by works, Neither by works of the flesh or works of the Spirit.
Does a people believe In order to understand the words written in the Bible you must know Greek or be educated? I am neither but I am taught by the Father. Those who hold these views you must be educated have missed the mark. My Father taught the first Christians through his Holy Spirit. They did not nor for a long time have bibles to read. They walked in the comfort of the Holy Spirit. In my Father’s love. Receiving your trust through the Holy Spirit for they are the Fruits of the Holy Spirit and are gifts given to us.
 
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Buzzard3

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Does a people believe In order to understand the words written in the Bible you must know Greek
Unfortunately, most people who argue from a Greek dictionary to make some theological point know next to nothing about Greek ... they"re usually bumbling, uneducated amateurs who are likely to interpret a Greek dictionary as poorly as they interpret the Bible - the OP is a case in point.
 
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biblelesson

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Well, let's extend your logic - a couple of verses later (v.17), when Jesus said
"you know him, for he dwells with you, and will be in you",
he was only referring to the disciples.

Why was it only to the disciples that Jesus said, "If you love me, you will keep my commandments" (John 14:25)?

If they were already saved, why did Jesus say to them, "If you love me, you will keep my commandments" (John 14:25)?
We are MADE Righteous. We are not righteous. We can do nothing to be righteous. No law keeping can make us righteous. Jesus righteousness substitutes our sinfulness.

THE JUST FOR THE UNJUST, 1 Peter 3:18 KJV.

If we love Jesus, we are given the Spirit of Christ, which MAKES us righteous, thereby we keep His commandments - by grace (free gift), we are saved.

We are given the righteousness of Christ to put on, that is to believe we have receive God’s blessing of righteousness in Jesus. The gospel is about believing what God Has already done in Jesus. Not working to get God to accept us.

Our work is to believe. Believe the gospel, which is the power of God unto salvation, Romans 1:16 KJV.

The POWER of God. Not our power. We cannot insult God by doing works or trying to keep the law, when God said all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags, Isaiah 64:6 KJV. We must put on Christ righteousness: the Spirit of Christ, the new man by the Spirit - the Spirit is our wedding garment.


Substitution -
God took our carnal man (sinful nature, our self man, our pride), and put it away for ever crucifying it on the cross with Christ. So we are dead in Christ. Then God raised us up in Christ and gave us His Spirit that is Holy and because we have God’s Holy Spirit - God’s Spirit cannot commit sin, therefore because we are dead in Christ and no longer have sin, we are MADE righteous in Christ. This is the new man (born again).

We must get this understanding because if we don’t, God will not accept us. God only accepts His Son. Not us, that’s why He crucified us on the cross with Christ, Romans 6:6 KJV, to put away the old man, to destroy sin.

The man at the wedding feast did not have on a wedding garment, Matthew 22:11-13 KJV. He did not put on his beautiful garment, Isaiah 52:1 KJV. Again, the wedding garment is the Holy Spirit.
 
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Brightfame52

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@biblelesson

We are MADE Righteous. We are not righteous. We can do nothing to be righteous. No law keeping can make us righteous. Jesus righteousness substitutes our sinfulness.

Sounds good, so are those Christ died for made righteous before God before or after they believe ? Rom 5:19

19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
 
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Dan2255

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@biblelesson



Sounds good, so are those Christ died for made righteous before God before or after they believe ? Rom 5:19

19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
The sin that condemns a man is unbelief. Which was told to us by the Father. What people don’t realize is that what Christ spoke were the words of the Father.
John 14
10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.
John 12
49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak.
So when we read the words Christ spoke we know the words were not his but the Father’s word.
And this is what the Father said.
John 16
8 And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment: 9 Of sin, because they believe not on me;
The Father teaches us that the sin that keeps one from his righteousness is the sin of unbelief. All those who have the sin of unbelief are condemned in the eyes of the Father.
 
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John Mullally

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Sounds good, so are those Christ died for made righteous before God before or after they believe ? Rom 5:19

19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
Not so fast. Christ died for all people. Romans 5:18 which precedes Romans 5:19 indicates that the many in Romans 5:19 is all people.

Romans 5:18 Consequently, just as one trespass resulted in condemnation for all people, so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people. NIV​
Since Jesus took upon Himself the “sin of the world,” (John 1:29), His atonement is therefore available to all, though is only applied whenever people place their faith in Him, just like His illustration at John 3:14-15 of Numbers 21:6-9 shows. Before a person looked upon the serpent on a standard, was anyone healed? Before a person believes in Jesus, is anyone saved?
 
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Brightfame52

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Not so fast. Christ died for all people. Romans 5:18 which precedes Romans 5:19 indicates that the many in Romans 5:19 is all people.

Romans 5:18 Consequently, just as one trespass resulted in condemnation for all people, so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people. NIV​
Since Jesus took upon Himself the “sin of the world,” (John 1:29), His atonement is therefore available to all, though is only applied whenever people place their faith in Him, just like His illustration at John 3:14-15 of Numbers 21:6-9 shows. Before a person looked upon the serpent on a standard, was anyone healed? Before a person believes in Jesus, is anyone saved?
I would argue that the people Christ died for shall be made righteous/justified Rom 5:19

19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.,

Now are all people Justified/ Righteous ?
 
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John Mullally

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I would argue that the people Christ died for shall be made righteous/justified Rom 5:19

19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.,
You assume that "the many" in Romans 5:19 is a subset of humanity, as if Christ only died for some. Romans 5:19 reiterates Romans 5:18 in poetic fashion as often seen in Proverbs. That is why I pointed you to Romans 5:18, which shows "the many" of Romans 5:19 is in fact the same as the "all people" in Romans 5:18.

Romans 5:18 Consequently, just as one trespass resulted in condemnation for all people, so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people. 19 For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous.​
Now are all people Justified/ Righteous ?
Not all people are justified even though Christ made atonement for all people. The atonement (and its benefit of justification) is received conditionally as I explained in the last paragraph of Post 1170.

There are many conditional promises in God's word. In general, these conditions are expressed in such a way that they can be met by those who desire to meet them - although humility and sacrifices are generally necessary.
 
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Buzzard3

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We are MADE Righteous. We are not righteous. We can do nothing to be righteous. No law keeping can make us righteous.
1Peter 1:14-17 instructs believers to be "holy [ie, righteous] yourselves in all your conduct" and to "conduct yourselves with fear", because God will judge "each one impartially according to his deeds" on Judgement Day. In other words, our righteous deeds having a bearing on our salvation. Please explain.

"As obedient children, do not be conformed to the passions of your former ignorance, but as he who called you is holy, be holy yourselves in all your conduct; since it is written, “You shall be holy, for I am holy.” And if you invoke as Father him who judges each one impartially according to his deeds, conduct yourselves with fear throughout the time of your exile." (1Peter 1:14-17)
If we love Jesus, we are given the Spirit of Christ, which MAKES us righteous, thereby we keep His commandments - by grace (free gift), we are saved ...
We are given the righteousness of Christ to put on, that is to believe we have receive God’s blessing of righteousness in Jesus. The gospel is about believing what God Has already done in Jesus. Not working to get God to accept us.

Our work is to believe. Believe the gospel, which is the power of God unto salvation, Romans 1:16 KJV.
If Jesus makes us righteous, why must we do works by keeping his commandments? (John 14:15)
The POWER of God. Not our power. We cannot insult God by doing works or trying to keep the law
Paul warns believers in Gal 5:19-21 and 1Cor 6:9-11 that their sins can result in them ending up in hell. Please explain.

In Romans 13:8-10, Paul tells believers that loving your neighbour is "the fulfilling of the law." That means Christians are under law, which is fulfilled by doing righteous works. Please explain.
when God said all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags, Isaiah 64:6 KJV.
Really? The verse before that says the very opposite: "Thou meetest him that joyfully works righteousness, those that remember thee in thy ways." (Isaiah 64:5)

You seem to have quoted Isaiah 64:4 completely out of context - that verse refers to deeds of righteous done by the Israelites who have rebelled against God and have forgotten him:

"But they rebelled
and grieved his holy Spirit" (Isaiah 63:10)
"There is no one that calls upon thy name" (Isaiah 64:7).

Furthermore, God gave Moses the Law, which contains literally hundreds of commandments ttodo righteous deeds - why would God command his people to be righteous if "all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags"?
Substitution -
God took our carnal man (sinful nature, our self man, our pride), and put it away for ever crucifying it on the cross with Christ. So we are dead in Christ. Then God raised us up in Christ and gave us His Spirit that is Holy and because we have God’s Holy Spirit - God’s Spirit cannot commit sin, therefore because we are dead in Christ and no longer have sin, we are MADE righteous in Christ. This is the new man (born again).

We must get this understanding because if we don’t, God will not accept us.
1John 2:3-4 says God will not accept us if we disobey his commandments:

"And by this we may be sure that we know him, if we keep his commandments. He who says “I know him” but disobeys his commandments is a liar, and the truth is not in him".
 
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Buzzard3

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You assume that "the many" in Romans 5:19 is a subset of humanity, as if Christ only died for some. Romans 5:19 reiterates Romans 5:18 in poetic fashion as often seen in Proverbs. That is why I pointed you to Romans 5:18, which shows "the many" of Romans 5:19 is in fact the same as the "all people" in Romans 5:18.
... which is consistent with other NT verses, such as ...

"He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world” (1 John 2:1-2).

"For to this end we toil and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe." (1Tim 4:10)
 
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Brightfame52

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You assume that "the many" in Romans 5:19 is a subset of humanity, as if Christ only died for some. Romans 5:19 reiterates Romans 5:18 in poetic fashion as often seen in Proverbs. That is why I pointed you to Romans 5:18, which shows "the many" of Romans 5:19 is in fact the same as the "all people" in Romans 5:18.

Romans 5:18 Consequently, just as one trespass resulted in condemnation for all people, so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people. 19 For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous.​

Not all people are justified even though Christ made atonement for all people. The atonement (and its benefit of justification) is received conditionally as I explained in the last paragraph of Post 1170.

There are many conditional promises in God's word. In general, these conditions are expressed in such a way that they can be met by those who desire to meet them - although humility and sacrifices are generally necessary.
The many in Rom 5:19 and the All in Rom 5:18 are one and the same, and the many that are made righteous and the all who received Justification of life are one and the same, so therefore anyone who isnt Justified, they are excluded.
 
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John Mullally

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The many in Rom 5:19 and the All in Rom 5:18 are one and the same, and the many that are made righteous and the all who received Justification of life are one and the same, so therefore anyone who isnt Justified, they are excluded.
Yes the many in Romans 5:19 are same "all people" in Romans 5:18 and we all know what "all people" means. Thus Christ's righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people. But we both don't agree that all people are justified. So how do we get around that impasse?

Your offered solution (which is common to Calvinists) is to say that the benefit for Christ's righteous act was only made for some people - a mysterious elect whom only God knows. But the problem there is that all the english translations of Romans 5:18 say Christ's act is for "all people", "all men", "everyone" or "all mankind". There are other scriptures that say that Christ atoned for all people (such as 1 Timothy 2:6 and the two verses @Buzzard3 mentioned in Post 1174).

My offered solution (which is common to non-Calvinist Christians) is to say that the benefit (justification) is offered to all people, but only received by faith by some as I explained in the last paragraph of Post 1170. I admit that Romans 5:18-19 puts no conditions upon the receipt pf justification - so that is why I introduced John 3:14-15 to show that from other scriptures justification is received conditionally - it is received by believing on Jesus.
 
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Buzzard3

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My offered solution (which is common to non-Calvinist Christians) is to say that the benefit (justification) is offered to all people, but only received by faith by some as I explained in the last paragraph of Post 1170. I admit that Romans 5:18-19 puts no conditions upon the receipt pf justification - so that is why I introduced John 3:14-15 to show that from other scriptures justification is received conditionally - it is received by believing on Jesus.
My understanding (for what it's worth) is that the Cross per se doesn't save anyone - rather, the sacrifice of Jesus makes it possible for everyone to be saved.
I like to think of the Cross as opening the door to salvation, but it doesn't push anyone thru that door. Getting thru that door requires an act of free will by each individual - ie, accepting God's gift of faith in Christ, followed by sanctification.

In short, without loving God, one cannot walk thru the door that leads to salvation that Jesus opened.
 
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John Mullally

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My understanding (for what it's worth) is that the Cross per se doesn't save anyone - rather, the sacrifice of Jesus makes it possible for everyone to be saved.
I like to think of the Cross as opening the door to salvation, but it doesn't push anyone thru that door. Getting thru that door requires an act of free will by each individual - ie, accepting God's gift of faith in Christ, followed by sanctification.

In short, without loving God, one cannot walk thru the door that leads to salvation that Jesus opened.
When I was in my twenties, I heard people in our denomination talking about how good things from God (like salvation) are freely provided, but only received by our faith. It took me a while to rectify that in my mind as the natural way of thinking about God's gifts is that they either are or are not received based solely upon God's discretion.

I find the faith reception model is an especially excellent way at looking at passages that show God's universal provision, like the second half of Romans 5:18, but which do not benefit many.
 
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RDKirk

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Yes the many in Romans 5:19 are same "all people" in Romans 5:18 and we all know what "all people" means. Thus Christ's righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people. But we both don't agree that all people are justified. So how do we get around that impasse?

Your offered solution (which is common to Calvinists) is to say that the benefit for Christ's righteous act was only made for some people - a mysterious elect whom only God knows. But the problem there is that all the english translations of Romans 5:18 say Christ's act is for "all people", "all men", "everyone" or "all mankind". There are other scriptures that say that Christ atoned for all people (such as 1 Timothy 2:6 and the two verses @Buzzard3 mentioned in Post 1174).

My offered solution (which is common to non-Calvinist Christians) is to say that the benefit (justification) is offered to all people, but only received by faith by some as I explained in the last paragraph of Post 1170. I admit that Romans 5:18-19 puts no conditions upon the receipt pf justification - so that is why I introduced John 3:14-15 to show that from other scriptures justification is received conditionally - it is received by believing on Jesus.
The "all people" is to mean that no group or class or nation is categorically excluded. Categorical inclusion or exclusion was how people always thought back then. There was no concept of universal human equality.
 
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Buzzard3

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When I was in my twenties, I heard people in our denomination talking about how good things from God (like salvation) are freely provided, but only received by our faith. It took me a while to rectify that in my mind as the natural way of thinking about God's gifts is that they either are or are not received based solely upon God's discretion.
The "gift" of salvation isn't like a gift as our culture normally thinks of a gift. We think of giving or receiving a gift as unconditional - however, the gift of salvation is conditional (James 2:24, 1Cor 6:11). Salvation is nevertheless a gift, in the sense that it's undeserved and cannot possibly be gained through our own efforts.

A grossly inadequate analogy would be, someone is bequeathed $1billion dollars in a will by a late rich relative, but in order to get access to the money, the beneficiary must first wash dishes in a soup kitchen for a week. No one deserves $1billion dollars for washing dishes in a soup kitchen for a week, and no one can possibly earn $1billion dollars that way, so although getting access to the money is conditional, it can most certainly be considered a gift.



A better analogy can be found in 2Kings 5, where Naaman goes to see the prophet Elisha in the hope of being cured of leprosy. Elisha told Naaman that in order to be cured, he must first wash himself seven times in the Jordan river. Normally, no one can be, or deserves to be, cured of leprosy by washing themselves seven times in the Jordan river, but that was the condition set by God (thru Elisha) in order for Naaman to receive the gift of being cured of leprosy.
 
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